Conversation started Apr 15, 2012 at 20:41.
Apr 15, 2012 20:41
Hey teddy. I'm trying to understand your answer here. I'm particularly slow today, so be merciful. Why is a closed set minus a closed set open?
It's open in the relative topology on $B$.
@MattN Probably the easiest way of saving your example in the real case would be to take the balls of radius $\sqrt{2}$ around $\pm e_n$ where $e_n = (0,\ldots,0,1,0,\ldots)$.
@tb Ah yes, the sets need to be open in the subspace topology. Thanks : )
(I think, I haven't checked thoroughly)
@MattN yes, and open sets $U$ in $B$ are of the form $V \cap B$, so if you insist on an open cover in the surrounding space, just replace the relatively open sets $U$ by sets $V$ such that $U = B \cap V$.
anyone want to take a crack at this finely posed question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/132169/…
@tb Yes, thank you.
I like this question : )
Apr 15, 2012 20:54
@MattN seen the comments to my answer? Here's a good exercise: Prove that the unit ball in an infinite dimensional normed space is never compact using Riesz's lemma.
@tb Yes I have. Will do this exercise. But not today, I'm done in, can't think straight (I mean even less than normally)
@MattN oh, you're not the only one. The painful days after too much alcohol will never be a lesson I'll be able to learn, apparently :)
 
Conversation ended Apr 15, 2012 at 20:56.