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3:24 AM
Gee... This took longer than expected...
Sorry about that. I'm curious to see what you came up with :) Hope you're sleeping tight! See you later.
 
 
6 hours later…
9:32 AM
Ello. I won't ask... : )
 
9:46 AM
Let me post the other direction:
Let $S$ be a compact set in $c_0(\mathbb{N})$.
If $S$ is not closed then there exists a limit point of $S$ that isn't in $S$. So there is a sequence in it that doesn't converge in it so by Heine-Borel for metric spaces $S$ isn't compact.
(Note for me: (Heine-Borel: $S$ is compact if and only if it is complete and totally bounded.))
If $S$ is not bounded then for every $n \in \mathbb{N}$ there exists an $s_n$ in $S$ with $\|s_n\|_\infty > n$. Then for a given $n$ I can find an $m$ such that $ \| s_n \|_\infty < \| s_m \|_\infty $ so that $\| s_n - s_m \|_\infty \geq | \| s_n \|_\infty - \| s_m \|_\infty | > 1$. This would be a sequence that doesn't have a convergent subsequence so $S$ wouldn't be compact.
Now the last part:
Let $\varepsilon > 0$. Now we want to find an $N$ such that for $n > N$ we have $|s(n)| < \varepsilon$ for all $s$ in $S$.
$\{B(s, \frac{\varepsilon}{2}) \}$ is an open cover of $S$ so there is a finite subcover $\{B(s_i, \frac{\varepsilon}{2}) \}_{i=1}^M$. For every $s_i$ there is an $N_i$ such that $|s_i(n)| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ for $n>N_i$ because $s_i$ are in $c_0$. So for $N := \max_i N_i$ we have $|s_i(n)| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2}$ for $n > N$ and for all $i$.
For every $s$ in $S$ there is an $i$ such that $s$ is in $B(s_i, \frac{\varepsilon}{2})$.
So for $n>N$ we have $$ |s(n)| \leq |s(n) - s_i(n)| + |s_i(n)| < \varepsilon$$
 
Yes, that's it. I'd have said this a bit more concisely: closed and bounded is clear (for boundedness I'd cover $S$ by $\{B(0,n)\}_{n \geq 1}$ and since there's a finite subcover, $S$ must be contained in some ball, hence it's bounded).
Or: the norm is continuous, hence achieves its maximum on $S$. There are many ways to do it.
 
10:03 AM
@tb Yay : )
 
The argument I really wanted to see is what starts with: "Let $\varepsilon \gt 0$..." and that's perfectly fine.
 
I know that that's what you wanted to see but the other two parts are not done in the notes so I wanted to do them as well.
 
Sure, nothing wrong with that!
 
Thank you! See? No strangling involved.
 
So, the last thing you might want to think about is what the weird uniform decay condition (the one involving $N$) has to do with equicontinuity...
If you realize $\mathbb{N}$ homeomorphically as the sequence $\mathcal{N} = (1/n)_{n \geq 1}$ in $\mathbb{R}$ then $c$ corresponds to the functions that extend continuously to $\mathcal{N} \cup \{0\} \subset \mathbb{R}$. Moreover, $c_0$ corresponds to those functions that extend continuously and $f(0) = 0$. With respect to the metric inherited from $\mathbb{R}$, the decay condition corresponds to equicontinuity at $0$.
$\mathcal{N} \cup \{0\}$ is just the one-point compactification $\mathbb{N} \cup \{\infty\}$ in disguise.
 
10:20 AM
Thanks.
 
 
2 hours later…
12:09 PM
So there are two ways to argue that $C_0(X)$ is complete: either directly or by claiming that it's the completion of $C_c(X)$. To do the second would involve showing that $C_c(X)$ is a closed subspace of $C_0(X)$ and then using that $\|\cdot\|_\infty$ is already a norm on $C_c$ without taking the quotient.
 
12:51 PM
Sleep well btw : )
 
 
2 hours later…
2:37 PM
I've never in my life used or seen the use of the Cauchy sequence description of the completion of a normed space.
You show that it exists and is unique up to unique isomorphism and then you forget about it again.
Note also that $C_c(X)$ is dense in $C_0(X)$, not closed.
 
That was just an idea, I haven't thought it through. Right, the closed subspace I quotient with is the $0$ space since the norm is already a norm, not a seminorm. Or something like that.
 
Try this: If you've got a subspace $U$ of a Banach space $X$ then the closure $\overline{U}$ is a Banach space.
 
2:52 PM
I'm answering Kyle's question about the completeness of $C^n ([0,1])$, give me a minute. : )
 
3:51 PM
Or 59 minutes. Sorry for that.
I'm not sure there is much to show. $\bar{U}$ is closed so it contains all its limit points. So if $u_n$ is a Cauchy sequence in $U$ then it converges in $X$ and then its limit lies in $\bar{U}$.
 
well, that's part of it. But why is $\overline{U}$ a vector space?
(and you need to consider a Cauchy sequence in $\overline{U}$, not only in $U$)
 
4:11 PM
If it's a Cauchy sequence in $\bar{U}$ then it also converges in $\bar{U}$ by the same argument.
I read parts of your discussion with Srivatsan. Have you finished that? I'm asking because I read this and I was wondering if he knows that it's missing the word "closed".
 
I'm sure he is
 
Ok : )
 
It came up a bit later I think.
 
So I need to say why $u + v$ is in $\bar{U}$ if $u$ and $v$ are.
Does the proof of this involve limits?
 
4:28 PM
of course
 
: )
Then I think I know how to show it:
If $u,v$ are in $\bar{U}$ then each is the limit of a sequence $u_n$ and $v_n$ in $U$. Then $\| u + v - (u_n + v_n) \| \leq \| u - u_n \| + \| v_n - v \| \leq \varepsilon$. Let $\varepsilon$ tend to zero to get $u + v = \lim_{n \to \infty} u_n + v_n$.
This is in $\bar{U}$ because it's a limit point of $U$.
 
Yes. Then the same thing for scalar multiplication.
 
Thanks for today!
 
4:45 PM
No problem. See you later!
 
See you later!
 
 
5 hours later…
9:39 PM
That episode yesterday was very enjoyable. I wish we had it on DVD so you could borrow it and conveniently watch it too. Unfortunately, it's all on iTunes.
 

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