as i said, it is possible that $I(A;B,C) \ne 0$ since i only have pair-wise independency, and this cannot be seen from the diagram, so how can this be correct?
@sagivd If you really meant $A,B$ and $A,C$ are pairwise independent as defined in the wiki article, then the notations $I(A;B)=0$ and $I(A;C)=0$ are incorrect.
If the notation is correct and they are pairwise independent, then either A or either of B and C is 0.
I am sure that if A and B are independent then $I(A;B)=0$. I am not sure about the converse, but i had the feeling that it is true as well. why do you think this is not true? I use the first definition of mutual information from here, and you can see that it is zero only if X,Y are independent.
In probability theory and information theory, the mutual information (MI) of two random variables is a measure of the mutual dependence between the two variables. More specifically, it quantifies the "amount of information" (in units such as bits) obtained about one random variable, through the other random variable. The concept of mutual information is intricately linked to that of entropy of a random variable, a fundamental notion in information theory, that defines the "amount of information" held in a random variable.
Not limited to real-valued random variables like the correlation coefficient...
not quite. i am not that fluent in information theory to give a good explenation.
but if you have A,B, each with their own entropy, which is a measure for "in-order" of an RV
than the mutual information is how much information one provides on the other
in-order is not a good expression
disorder is better
i dont mean to disrespect, but if you are not familiar with the subject i cannot explain it thoroughly.. i dont have time and i will probably mislead you a lot :)