3
For 1. According to the definition of convergence in probability, $X_n \overset{p} \to X$ iff $$P(|X_n-X|>\epsilon) \to 0$$ as $n\to \infty$. But since $X_n$ is equal either to $0$ or to $1$ you have for $X\equiv0$ and for all $\epsilon>0$ that: $$P(|X_n-0|>\epsilon)=P(X_n=1)=p_n$$ which obviousl...