The following question is interesting, but I suspect that the OP's clumsy English, plus skepticism on the part of commenters, is making it a little unproductive

Personally, I just have trouble approaching an answer. This was certainly accomplished throughout history (otherwise we'd still have every culture that ever existed throughout history). But the question seems to be asking about intention. So now I have to decide if this was ubiquitous, unique to just this one incident, or something in between (more likely, but then where's the proper place to draw the line).

..or perhaps the important thing is the intended effect (essentially the erasure of their entire culture), and not the method. That's effectively Genocide, and as such every Genocide (including prehistory ones we don't know about) would count. Or perhaps only "soft" Genocides count, or perhaps...