Hi Js. Actually I'm at the VA clinic waiting for blood work. What do you think John 10;30 is teaching? "I and the Father We are one." It's already a given that the Father and the Son are one in purpose. So what did Jesus mean? And why did the Jews want to stone Him for what He said? Do you really believe they wanted to kill Him for being one in purpose? Or was there another reason?

@Mr.Bond It was again about “bearing witness” (John 10:25). Jesus defended himself, indicating that the Jews clearly misinterpreted his words (John 10:32-37) Verse 38 clarifies what Jesus says to them - he uses the same words there than in John 17:21.

Your not following the context after vs25. Vs27, The sheep hear His voice. Vs28, and I give them eternal life and no one is able to snatch them out of MY hand. Vs29, No one is able to snatch them out of My Fathers hand. John 10:30, I AND MY FATHER, WE ARE ONE." The power of the Son is equal to that of the Father and they are one in nature/essence as well as in attributes, design, will and work. Jesus distinguishes the "I" from the Father and uses the plural verb "are" denoting "WE ARE." Meaning their essence or nature as identical. Vs31, The Jews took up stones AGAIN to stone Him. Why? cont.

Vs33, For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a man make Yourself out to be God. Not "a god," but God. By you quoting John 17:21 you think this all about unity. It's about being God because Jesus brings up the subject of gods at Psalm 82:6. His point is the fact that if the Jews are going to accuse Him of blasphemy then the Father is blaspheming for He said, "ye are gods." The gods off Psalm 82:6 are corrupt judges and they will die like the men that they are. Jesus said, I am the Son of God so how can I be blaspheming? They are sons of God as well.

@Mr.Bond Look at the original greek text of John 10:33 - there is no definite article in front of theou(god) - you know what that means, as you hammered it home in our discussion about the AOTL. If God Almighty calls even corrupt judges „gods“ because they have authority granted by God, why do you judge me - because I said I am God‘s son? You‘re presenting a poor argument. Paul can maybe help you - 1 Corinthians 8:5, 6 - There is only one God: the Father.

@Mr.Bond - John 10:27,28 - Jesus’ sheep will not be snatched out of Jesus’ hand due to the power given to Jesus’ (to give everlasting life) by God. Verse 28 says that the sheep are safe with God after their death - that no sheep of Jesus could be snatched out of God’s hand. The sheep are God’s and he has given/entrusted them to Jesus (John 6:37; John 18:9; 1 Peter 1:4, 5). Jesus has not lost a single on of them, and they are saved by God’s power in the resurrection.

So what your telling me is that when Jesus quoted Psalm 82:6 He was making the point that He is claiming He is "a god?" What point was Jesus making at John 5:17-18? Or at John 8:56-57? And at John 19:7 where the Jews specifically say He is making Himself "The Son of God? Why would it be blasphemy to claim to be the Son of God since the Jews say there the sons of God as well? Read the following about the letter "a." hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/83709/… Again, John 10:30 is not about "unity."

@Mr.Bond - The point you don't seem to get is Jesus' point of claiming divine authority (God's authority visible in Jesus by the works he was doing through the power that the Father gave him - the witness/testimony - and then paralleling his authority with the authority of imperfect judges, who were assigned and authorized by God, and called by God Almighty 'gods'). He basically said "Almighty God has given imperfect judges of old divine authority, and called them "gods", why shouldn't he give his own Son such divine authority!" The problem was divine authority and not divine nature!

Same argument is true for John 5:17-18 and John 8:56-57. The claim of being God's son, and proving it through works only possible through God's power/holy spirit GIVEN to Jesus. The works proved that he was God's Son and had divine authority. Guess what, the Jewish Leaders didn't like it, because some carpenter boy who was able to get a lot of followers and kicked off an unwelcome reform, dared to question their authority even showed by his words and deeds that he had high authority that they rather wanted for themselves.

The possible pretexts/excuses they might have found to justify their intentions of killing Jesus I have laid out already here: christianity.stackexchange.com/a/100856/65225

@Mr.Bond - Rather than finding other "trinitarian arguments" to bring for me to refute, I would rather receive feedback on possible flaws in my argumentation in my answer to the thread question that we could discuss.

Ok Js, that's fine with me, but first I want to post a thread I started (about 3 years ago) and it has to do with the "Son of God" idiom. In other words the "Son of God" idiom has a very significant meaning as it applies to Jesus Christ and no one else. christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/83361/… Read my answer to my own question. Your refuted again! Lol

@Mr.Bond - Does it? What other OT bible passages could the Jews have had in mind, when thinking about the Sonship of God? The Israelites are called Sons of God (Deuteronomy 14:1; 32:6; 32:18-19; Psalm 29:1). The Judges of Israel are Sons of God (Psalm 82:6); the Angels are "Sons of God" (Job 38:4,7); Satan is a Son of God (Job 1:6) - none of it indicates any of them being GOD, but rather indicate a relationship to God in either divine origin, anointing by God, or authority granted by God. When Jesus calls himself "Son of Man" he might simply be alluding to the prophecy in Daniel 7:13,14. ->

When the Jews did the same accusation (thinking he made himself equal to God) in John 5:18, how did Jesus react there? John 5:19 shows what Jesus said in response to the accusation: "I (the Son) cannot do a single thing on my own initiative" - Can we imagine someone equal to Almighty God saying that he could “do nothing by himself”?