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1:48 PM
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Q: How to prove this is an isomorphism?

Numb3rsBe $\mathbb{K}$ a field, and $\alpha_0, \ldots , \alpha_n \in \mathbb{K}$ are distinct elements. Show the application $$\mathbb{K}[x]_{\leq n} \to \mathbb{K}^{n+1}$$ $$p \mapsto (p(\alpha_0), \ldots, p(\alpha_n))$$ is an isomorphism. Attempts I proved the application is linear. Now I want to prov...

 
You are on the right track when you invoke the fact that any polynomial of degree $n$ over a field $\mathbb{K}$ has at most $n$ roots. Call the map given $f$ and suppose that $p \in \mathbb{K}[x]_{\leq n}$ is such that $f(p) = (0, 0, ..., 0)$. In other words, $p(\alpha_i) = 0$ for all $i = 0, 1, ..., n$. In other words, $p$ has $n+1$ distinct roots. Is this possible if $p$ is a non-zero polynomial?
For surjectivity, consider the case of $(1, 0, 0,..., 0)$. Can you find a polynomial $p$ of degree $n$ such that $p(\alpha_0) = 1$ and $p(\alpha_i) = 0$ for all $i = 1, ..., n$? Once you have found such a polynomial $p$, can you extend it to other vectors of the form $(0,0,..,0,1,0,...0)$? Note that these vectors form a basis for $\mathbb{K}^{n+1}$, how does the linearity of $f$ help you then?
 
@HoWeiHaw Thank you! For the injective part, I would conclude it's not possible, I mean it's a contradiction. $p$ cannot have at most $n$ roots and $n+1$ distinct roots at the same time. Though I am missing the bridge that connects this fact, to the fact that only the zero polynomial lies in the kernel, if we require $p$ to have $n$ and $n+1$ roots at the same time...
@HoWeiHaw For surjectivity if I understood well, I can for example find $p = (x-1)x^n$ for the first idea, and ... like $p = x^{n-k} \cdot (x-1) \cdot x^{k}$? I will find a basis for $\mathbb{K}^{n+1}$ hence the image vectors fulfill $\mathbb{K}^{n+1}$ hence we have the surjectivity. The linearity though I don't know how it may help
 
We know that any nonzero polynomial $p \in \mathbb{K}[x]_{\leq n}$ has at most $\deg(p)$ roots where $0 \leq \deg(p) \leq n$. So, any nonzero polynomial $p$ cannot be mapped to the vector $(0,0, ..., 0)$ as this would mean that it has at least $n+1$ distinct roots, which is a contradiction. Hence, the only polynomial in $\mathbb{K}_{\leq n}$ that can be mapped to the vector $(0, 0, ..., 0)$ is?
For the surjectivity part, $p = (x-1)x^n$ would not work for 2 reasons. Firstly, $p$ has degree $n + 1$ here and so $p \notin \mathbb{K}[x]_{\leq n}$. Secondly, $p(\alpha_0) = (\alpha^n - 1)\alpha_0^n$ which need not be $1$ (the same reasoning applies for the other $\alpha_i$). Further hints: How should a polynomial $p$ with roots $\alpha_1, \alpha_2, ..., \alpha_n$ look like first? If we want $p(\alpha_0)$ to be $1$, how do we enforce that? Now, repeat this for the other vectors.
Finally, given any $(c_0, c_1, ..., c_n) \in \mathbb{K}^{n+1}$, we can write it as $c_0(1, 0, ..., 0) + c_1(0, 1, ..., 0) + ... + c_n(0, 0, ..., 0, 1)$. Since $f$ is linear, what can we do with the polynomials that we have found earlier?
 
Ok, so for the first thing: I understood only the null polynomial can be mapped to the null vector. About the surjectivity, a polynomial $p$ with such roots would be written as $$p = (x - \alpha_0)(x - \alpha_1) \ldots$$ hence if we want $p(\alpha_0) = 1$ we must require $p = (x - \alpha_0)^{n} + 1$ right? Or also $p = (x - \alpha_0)(x - \alpha_1) \ldots (x - \alpha_n) + 1$ Then we repeat. Finally, I can say $f(c_k) = f(c_k(1, 0, \ldots )) = c_k f(1, 0, \ldots )$ for all $k$ from $1$ o $n$ hence the image is fulfilled (I know I say it bad, but I might have got it)
 
You are getting there!
 
1:50 PM
Yay! Slowly haha. I'm sorry for the disturb, I am not still able to do proofs
 
We want $p$ to be a degree $n$ polynomial. Since $p$ has $n$ distinct roots $\alpha_1, ..., \alpha_n$, $p$ must be the polynomial $p(x) = (x - \alpha_1)...(x - \alpha_n)$. However, this is not close to what we want since $p(\alpha_0) = (\alpha_0 - \alpha_1) ... (\alpha_0 - \alpha_n)$. Fortunately, $\alpha_0$ and all the other $\alpha$'s are distinct, so how do we modifiy $p(x)$ to get $p(\alpha_0) = 1$?
 
I would modify the polynomial as $p(x) = b(x-\alpha1)...(x-\alpha_n) + 1$ where $b = 1/((\alpha_0 - \alpha_1)...(\alpha_0 - \alpha_n))$
 
Close! But do you need the +1 there?
 
Oh, right I don't! Since the division would itself make $1$
Don't know why I thought it made zero, lol
 
2:06 PM
Yup! You got the first part. So, you can actually do this for the other vectors of the form (0,1,0,...,0) etc.
 
Yess!
Thank you!
 
You're welcome! I think you should be able to figure out how the linearity of $f$ helps you from here.
 
Indeed I am, thank yoy!!
You*
 

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