@PaulVargas Are you able to get Mark Smith's essay, cited in this answer? His note #1 cites a huge range of earlier scholarly literature. See too a more recent article on Ps 23:5-6. That kind of thing?
@Caleb I just read your comment below my answer hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/7577/2873 [after it got another downvote :-) ] Frankly, I'm not sure I can give you something more textual and compelling, at least at this point. Thanks.
@JohnMartin I haven't actually DV'ed that, but I don't see how those references along make a case (much less a precedent which is what the question is looking for) that such is the correct interpretation. I can think of several others (e.g. that water symbolizes the act of creation/recreation in those verses rather than God's spirit directly) that seem more plausible given nothing but those verses for context. Again non saying you're wrong there, only that the case doesn't seem to be made.