@Stupidquestioninc this is one of many experiments that shows light has wavelike properties.
Light is neither a wave nor a particle. It is a quantum field. But it can behave like a wave in some circumstance and behave like a particle in other circumstances. When we diffract light it is behaving as a wave.
Both the wave theory of light and the particle theory of light are approximations to a deeper theory called Quantum Electrodynamics (QED for short). Light is not a wave nor a particle but instead it is an excitation in a quantum field.
QED is a complicated theory, so while it is possible to do c...
@Stupidquestioninc that's the answer I was thinking of.
Mathematical physics refers to the development of mathematical methods for application to problems in physics. The Journal of Mathematical Physics defines the field as "the application of mathematics to problems in physics and the development of mathematical methods suitable for such applications and for the formulation of physical theories".
== Scope ==
There are several distinct branches of mathematical physics, and these roughly correspond to particular historical periods.
=== Classical mechanics ===
The rigorous, abstract and advanced reformulation of Newtonian mechanics adopting t...
Maths degrees don't force you to choose an area of maths when you start, so you can wait until your last year to decide. At that point you can choose what you find most interesting.
@Ankit if the other end of the spring isn't attached to anything the tension in the spring will always be zero i.e. the spring will be at its natural length.
Einstein told us that the balance under free fall shows zero deflection because gravity is a curvature in the fabric of spacetime.
Now let's assume we have a spring balance in gravity free space (though there is gravitational force between me and the balance) as shown below. If we somehow apply a...
@Ankit if the spring is massless, or approximately massless i.e. very small mass, then the force you have to apply to accelerate it is approximately zero. Yes?
So in that case you can accelerate the spring as much as you want and it will read (approximately) zero.
But if the other end of the spring is attached to something that has a non-negligible mass (i.e. the rest of the balance) then the force won't be (approximately) zero.
@JohnRennie But the force was applied on that system of spring and whatever inside the balance. So that total system will accelerate as a whole . Then why should the spring stretch ? I couldn't grasp it.
Consider a simplified model of the balance. We have a point mass m attached to one end of the massless spring, and we pull on the other end of the spring to make the whole system (point mass and spring) accelerate with an acceleration a.
Yes. The only thing connected to the mass is the spring, so it must be the spring exerting the force on the mass. That means there is a tension in the spring equal to the force F = ma.
@JohnRennie my general doubt was that when we fall at g we don't feel that force . Then why isn't it applicable when we accelerate with some value a due to a force f = ma ?
Go back to the simplified case of the point mass and the spring. If you accelerate the system by pulling on the end of the spring then: 1. you apply a force to the end of the spring 2. the other end of the spring applies a force to the mass
But now suppose you and the spring and the mass are falling freely in a gravitational field. This time: 1. gravity applies a force to you 2. gravity applies a force to the mass
So now the spring is not applying any force. The only force is being applied by gravity, and gravity applies the force to both you and the mass. The spring doesn't hav to apply any force, so it isn't stretched.
Just had a thought, since both the momentum and position operators are unbounded they have continuous parts of their spectrum, why doesn't this imply that all other observables $\hat O(\hat x,\hat p)$ are unbounded? Does this imply we can construct bounded operators as functions of unbounded ones? That seems odd to me for some reason
@JohnRennie I guess for instance the quantum harmonic oscillator has a purely discrete Hamiltonian, but this is constructed as a function of the position and momentum operators whose eigenvalues are continuous
but also not all unbounded operators have continuous parts in their spectrum - the squared angular momentum operator has a fully discrete spectrum but is unbounded.
Can someone tell me how a photon can be an energy packet ? Like how can we describe energy in the form of blocks. How can energy be confined to a particular point of space ?
Why don't they just spread out in space all around ?
@JohnRennie. @ACuriousMind it will be helpful if you explain my questions .
Has this question been asked earlier on this site ? If yes then please share the link. If not , should I ask it there ?
If we have a Lie group that isn't connected like the Lorentz group, is it meaningful to talk about a representation of each disconnected component separately or must we talk about a representation of the group as a whole full stop?
I want to say it might depend on whether each distinct disconnected component forms a subgroup, for which I think the restricted Lorentz group is but as for the other bits I'm not sure
I guess more generally the question is do topologically disconnected subspaces of Lie groups separately satisfy the axioms of a group
Further, all the components of a Lie group are just "copies" of the identity component, i.e. there is some element $g_i\in G$ such that $G_i = g_i G_0$ for $G_0$ the identity component and $G_i$ some other component.
many Lie groups (but not all) can be written as the semi-direct product of $G/G_0$ and $G_0$ and hence the question of their representations reduces to finding representations of the discrete group and the identity component
this is why people usually talk about $P$ and $T$ (parity and time inversion) separately from the continuous Lorentz transformations - the Lorentz group is the semi-direct product of its identity component and the finite group of two elements of order 2 ($\mathbb{Z}_2\times \mathbb{Z}_2$)
In Mendel genetics, how do we know which gene is recessive and which dominant? I mean, in the square thingy we write the dominant with a capital letter and the recessive with a lower letter but in real life, how does it work?
@JingleBells oh, I thought you were asking about what the genetic mechanism behind it is. If you just want to know whether an allele is dominant or recessive, do what Mendel did and count its presence in offspring
Is there some global universal database of which genes are recessive and which dominant? For example, in terms of hair color, black is dominant, and blonde is recessive? I know I'm wrong but I'm struggling to understand how it is determined that when we do the Punnett square, the dominant is a always on the left...
@JingleBells such a database wouldn't make sense because "dominant" or "recessive" isn't a universal property of an allele, it's always just relative to the other allele present (i.e. it might be that in a pair A/B A is dominant, but in a pair A/C C is)
It depends on how the alleles actually produce the phenotype. E.g. it might be that B codes for nothing, while A and C code for different proteins that when present change the phenotype (e.g. these proteins are a specific color). Then B is always recessive in contrast to A and C, but what happens in the pair A/C depends on how the two proteins interact or how the colors mix
I.e. it's much easier to observe which is dominant/recessive than figure it out from first principles (that's almost impossible)
So if 100% of the kids are white-skinned even though dad is white and mom is black, it means black is recessive, and vice-versa? You just have to work through all the possible Punnett squares (agh, Mendel matrix sounds cooler) and compare the possible outcomes to the real offsprings to figure out which is dominant and which is recessive?
yes (but note that once you get to polygenic traits it becomes substantially more difficult since you first need to figure out how many genes there are even involved to compute the "possible outcomes")
I'm not quite sure how that works except through a lot of guesswork, actually
Hmm, if for one organism the black gene is dominant but for the other organism, it's white. How does that work? If organisms don't agree on which is dominant and which is recessive?
of course if there are multiple genes it can happen that for one gene the allele for one color is dominant and for the other gene the allele for the other color is dominant
@JingleBells I don't think you can say that one color is dominant over the other in humans - as I said there are multiple genes involved and heterozygotic carriers usually end up with a color that's neither of the parents' color, i.e. there's "incomplete dominance" here where the phenotypes mix.
Hmm, so when the whole system runs and ribosomes build proteins..., something determines which one of the two alleles from the two chromosomes (of mom and dad) to take the info from, right? One is dominant, the other recessive. How does the ribosome know which one to build a protein for?
It depends on how the alleles actually produce the phenotype. E.g. it might be that B codes for nothing, while A and C code for different proteins that when present change the phenotype (e.g. these proteins are a specific color). Then B is always recessive in contrast to A and C, but what happens in the pair A/C depends on how the two proteins interact or how the colors mix
it doesn't decide, both strands are read, it depends on how they interact (and of course there's many more complicated situations than just the one above)