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2:34 AM
9
A: How many $p$-adic numbers are there?

Patrick Da SilvaTo complete Student's answer : $\mathbb Z_p \subset \mathbb Q_p \subset \mathbb C_p$, and since $\mathbb C_p$, the algebraic closure of $\mathbb Q_p$, is isomorphic to $\mathbb C$, the field of the complex numbers, we know that $$ |\mathbb R| = |\mathbb Z_p| \le |\mathbb Q_p| \le |\mathbb C_p| =...

In short, yes.
 
I am here to chew ass and kick bubblegum.
2
 
3:13 AM
0
Q: Would this suffice in a visual type theory to define a list?

EnjoysMathSee the image. I got that from: wikipedia article. I want to make a visual type theory so that we aren't stuck comprehending pure text for eternity. Also, is the abstract type List a product of some sort? The diagram doesn't indicate this since it's based on a product diagram of $E \times L$...

Do you think that searching for isomorphic subgraphs of a category diagram is a bad idea?
Handmade diagrams don't get super huge
The user can then a the click of a button apply a rule defined by a diagrma
 
 
1 hour later…
which?
 
5:27 AM
Hey, can someone please verify/give reference to this: If partial derivates exist at every point in a neighborhood of a $R^2$ -> $R$ function, then the partial derivatives are continuous as well.
 
5:51 AM
in The Symposium, 16 mins ago, by Secret
> Come now, I will tell you ... the only routes of inquiry that are for thinking: the one, that it is and that it is not possible for it not to be, is the path of Persuasion (for it attends upon Truth), the other, that it is not and that it is right that it not be, this indeed I declare to you to be a path entirely unable to be investigated: For neither can you know what is not (for it is not to be accomplished) nor can you declare it. [2=B2]
For the same thing is for thinking and for being. [3=B3]
 
6:20 AM
What’s the most surprising math result you know of?
 
6:38 AM
@FailedtobeaMathematician there are tons of proof questions, which?
 
@Jagerber48 hello!
 
Hello! Thanks for having a look at my question!
 
Of course! Just took an intro course to diff geo and the question looked really well thought out :)
 
Thanks :)
It sounds like you're getting the idea of what I'm asking
 
No, totally -- it's strange to me too
The reason stuff like the Hodge star and musical isomorphisms and what have you come up is because to properly represent things in a coordinate-invariant manner, we use what are called differential forms
Have you heard the term before?
 
6:40 AM
Yes I've heard of them but my understanding is not great.
I've read about them and self-teach myself but I've never taken a proper differential geometry course.
 
No problemo at all, honestly my own understanding is not too deep yet
 
I understand decently well what something like dx is as a covector
and it seems like differential forms are anti-symmetric tensor products of covectors like dx
 
Nice, okay, so you're familiar with the idea of the cotangent space and everything?
 
but I can't get my head around why that would be interesting or the properties of the objects
 
Okay, that's actually a great way of putting it
Why it's interesting (afaik, anyone feel free to correct me at any point) is because we have two parallel ways of seeing things
We have the standard calculus way, where we work with fields, and have div, grad, and curl
And then we have working with differential forms
We can kinda switch back and forth between the two using the "musical isomorphism" -- does that sound familiar?
 
6:46 AM
I'm in physics so I'm familiar with raising and lowering operators on tensors/vectors using the metric tensor. it seems like the musical isomorphism is capturing exactly this sort of thing. Thinking of it as converting between a "standard calculus" way of working with fields etc. and the way of working with differential forms sounds interesting to me.
 
That's exactly it. So you're pretty much free using that isomorphism to flip back and forth between the tangent space and the cotangent space (i.e. vector field to differential form and back again)
 
ok
Are you able to explain how grad and div come into the discussion of forms?
 
Yup, just piecing together the details (took the class in winter, trying to remember most of it! :P)
 
ok great! thank you!
 
np!
So, the way of taking the gradient is to take your function from a 0-vector to a 0-covector (pretty much the same thing), take the exterior derivative to get a 1-covector, then convert it back from a 1-covector to a 1-vector. And that's it :)
The gradient of a vector field is just a nicely-wrapped exterior derivative
When you try curl, things get a tiny bit tricker, but not a whole lot worse.
 
6:59 AM
ok, I can kind of follow for grad but I'm curious to hear about div. I've struggled with that one and definitely don't understand the Hodge star, other than understanding that like, 3-2 = 1 and 3-1 = 2 has something to do with it...
 
Yeah, exactly. At first, the Hodge star seems a little arbitrary and strange.
I'll do curl first, because it also uses the Hodge star, but it takes us "internally" from 1-covectors to 2-covectors
 
So curl, we start with a 1-vector and convert it to a 1-covector
We then take the exterior derivative as usual, but then we're stuck with a 2-covector
And we need some way of getting out a 1-vector when we're all done
 
How do you think about the exterior derivative here?
 
So we use the Hodge star operator. Since we're working in 3D, the Hodge star takes us from a k-covector to a (3 - k) covector
The exterior derivative here gets a little tricky, since we have to worry about all those wedge products now
So intuition understandably gets a little trickier.
Wikipedia's way of thinking about it talks about thinking about the differential forms as measuring flux through small parallelpipeds, and taking the exterior derivative just adds another dimension to that parallelpiped.
I've heard good things about the approach taken in this document tho, and it discusses intuition on Hodge star as well (tbh I might read that later tonight :)
In any case, we use the Hodge star to get us back from a 2-covector to a 1-covector, and then we can just go back to a 1-vector as normal
 
7:07 AM
ok
 
Intuitively, the Hodge star swaps out everything that's "there" for everything that's "not there", i.e. the hodge star of dx^dy is dz
 
hmm ok
 
That's up to sign though, cyclic permutations preserve the sign but doing something like dy^dx yields -dz
 
So you can see that it clearly takes you from 2-covectors to 1-covectors, tho of course it does seem a little funny at first.
For div (the grand finale) you go from 1-vector to 1-covector, take a hodge star first this time to get to a 2-covector (we'd already done 0-covectors and 1-covectors, so this is the intuitive next step), then take the exterior derivative to get a 3-covector.
We want out a 1-vector tho, so we hodge star again to get a 1-covector and then just send it back.
So grad is pretty much a fancy exterior derivative on 0-forms, curl is a fancy exterior derivative on 1-forms, and div is a fancy exterior derivative on 2-forms, but they're all pushed and hodged around so that they play nice with 3D vector fields
What's fun is that you can actually do out those computations on a generic vector field in Euclidean space, and get out the good old expressions for grad, div, and curl :)
 
7:14 AM
Yeah I think that is what I would like to try to do. That would probably help with my question
Your explanation of Hodge star seems pretty straightforward and helpful
The thing I wouldn't know how to calculate is the exterior derivative of a 1-form or 2-form
 
Oh, gotcha -- the rules are pretty nice, so I can just give a quick example
so if you have something like x dx + y dz, taking the exterior derivative just means that you wedge things together, i.e. you get dx^dx + dy^dz = dy^dz, because anything wedge itself is zero by antisymmetry
 
ok
So I guess it is important that there is a the presence of both a function and a covector
because you need to take the differential of the function to get the second covector in the product
yeah that's not too bad
 
it is indeed :) and the wiki page has some nice extra details if you need them
like if you have xy dz, it's the sum of all the partial derivatives, i.e. y dx^dz + x dy^dz
also, d(df) = 0 for any function f is useful
 
right
cool thanks! Yeah I think I'll be able to unravel these definitions a bit now.
I guess my original question still stands about the $\nabla$ operator standing on its own
 
of course, I've starred your question because I'm pretty curious about that too
 
7:23 AM
It seems like the answer must be wrapped in this differential geometry stuff somewhere!
But yeah otherwise it just seems like the operator can be used and manipulated successfully in too many ways to be more than "just" a convenience.
 
Just an aside: the "blood-related" generalization of vector calculus is geometric calculus (Clifford algebra) and working with multi-vectors (where grad, div, curl are defined on multivectors). Though for diff geo purposes, working with multi-covectors (differential forms) is sometimes more convenient thanks to pullbacks (we can't pullback a vector field, but we can pullback a differential form). The correspondence between multi-vectors and multi-covectors is not always canonical, unfortunately.
 
Right? It's true that because we have coordinate free definitions of each "nabla operator" your observations must hold, but I'd love to see if there's some clean intuitive way to see why that does.
@Iza_lazet whoa, huh -- any source recommendations for geometric calculus?
 
What was the question about nabla again?
 
4
Q: Coordinate free definition of $\nabla$ operator

Jagerber48There are a number of posts on this site asking similar questions and some of them have been answered (to my taste) at least partially but none give a complete answer that I am satisfied with. See links at the bottom of this question for a small selection of posts asking related (or even the same...

Thanks for the input on geometric calculus/Clifford algebra. I've distantly heard about that in the context of spinors but maybe I'll have to look into more detail
 
that is easy. In fact, it is exactly analogous to how the exterior derivative is defined: by first agreeing on the 0-dimensional case, then by listing the algebraic properties one wants the operator to have, so that we get a unique operator. Although obviously, students are usually taught just the formula.
I learned geometric calculus from Alan Macdonald's books and notes. It is a very immature field, so there is some disagreement on certain notations (such as contraction) and what properties people want the operators to have.
his books, unfortunately, do not contain the BAC-CAB family of formulas, but somehow his online notes do.
 
7:35 AM
Interesting--thanks so much!
I'm going to nod off for the night here, take care you two
 
Have a good night! Thank you for all of the information and taking the time to discuss with me!
 
Ofc! It was interesting and really informative for me too :))
 
@Iza_lazet are you able to elaborate on what you mean by the 0-dimensional case we have to agree on and what algebraic properties we would want the nabla operator to have? Or perhaps you could provide an answer to the linked question whenever you have the time?
 
I think either Herstenes or Alan provided the derivation in their books. Basically you want things like associativity, Leibniz's rule, change in grading, etc. The 0-dimensional just means for a function f (0-dimensional), $\nabla f$ is the usual gradient of the function.
also multilinearity of course
 
0
Q: If $A$ is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest lower bound property.

Failed to be a MathematicianMentioned as an easy exercise in 'Topology', James R. Munkres, 2e, Pearson[page No:25] If $A$ is an ordered set has the Least upper bound property iff it has the greatest lower bound property. An ordered set $A$ is said to have the least upper bound property if every nonempty subset $A_0$...

I got the help :)
 
7:46 AM
I see
That theorem is very important, so study it carefully.
 
an honest curious question, when do people use this theorem outside the exercise?
 
If I recall, you need that to prove nested intervals theorem
and that will allow you to prove Bolzano–Weierstrass theorem, which is needed to show every sequence in a closed real interval has a convergent subsequence, which is used in proving things related to limits
 
8:01 AM
Oh ok. So that is yet another strategy, among many equivalent ones, to approach the fundamental property of real numbers.
 
yeah, and it is because the reals obey lub that you can say so much about continuous functions on the reals. But again I am not an expert, as I mostly learn all my real analysis from this chat as I never get a chance to fit a real analysis course in my undergrad
 
personally, I have always preferred the Cauchy-completeness approach, which can be generalized to general metric spaces. Well, most professors like to teach LUB and Dedekind cuts though.
 
I also like the dedekind cuts approach more, because it generalises easily to the surreals
also I really don't like to see more than 3 inequality signs in a single line, which is common for the cauchy approach
though I have some understanding of both approaches and Iam actually planning to restudy those constructions and proofs later because I need them to understand dense linear orderings in general
 
 
5 hours later…
1:17 PM
Consider $dx/dy -dy/dx + d^2x/dy^2=7$ what will be order and degree
 
@TedShifrin, you mention homework problems in your video lectures several times. Can I have access to them?
 
Can anyone please help me on this?
12 mins ago, by Jasmine
Consider $dx/dy -dy/dx + d^2x/dy^2=7$ what will be order and degree
I think that order should be 2 and degree should be undefined
 
1:48 PM
@Fargle Ugh of course :) The construction of the $p$-adic numbers really distracted me from where they live! Thanks
 
2:47 PM
@Silent Well, you'd need the textbook for those ...
 
 
1 hour later…
4:06 PM
hmm...
Which definition and assumption so I blow up in order to cause $\text{lub} \to \text{glb}$ to fail?
Just for curiosity to see how failure of least upper bounded sets look like
Ah I see, so by "de-lub" the set $A$, you can have $\ell_0 \not\in L(B)$ or $\ell_0 \not\in B$
The rationals bounded by irrational endpoint open intervals $(-r,r) \cap \Bbb{Q}$ is the easiest counterexamples as the would be lub will become $r$ thus falling outside the set, hence breaking the proof as required
But is there more interesting way to create a set which does not satisfy lub?
In particular, can we have $\ell_0 \in L(B)$ and yet lub fails?
Meanwhile, the failure of the proof due to empty L(B) will correspond to the case where B has no lower bound, thus it cascade down forever regardless of which filter you pick
So that means there are two ways for a subset of a given set to break the least upper bound property:
1. Either the set B has no lower bound (thus there exists an infinitely decreasing sequence or the downward directing net is unbounded or there is a filter with no minimal element) resulting in L(B) to be empty
2. Or that L(B) has no least upper bound because any would be least upper bound will fall outside of L(B) or B (as in the rational counterexample)
 
4:26 PM
@Secret: You cannot break LUB in the real numbers, but you can in stranger ordered topological spaces.
 
1
Q: Not well-ordered sets satisfying the least upper bound property

hengxinBefore proving that every closed interval in $\mathbb{R}$ is compact, James R. Munkres remarks that, in Section 27 entitled "Compact Subspaces of the Real Line" of Topology (2nd edition), Remark: We need only one of the order properties of the real line --- the least upper bound property. We ...

> However, every linear order can be extended to a linear order which satisfies the least upper bound property by considering a construction similar to the construction of the real numbers by a Dedekind completion of the rationals.
and Re Ted: Ah I see, so in general I will need to go to things weaker than linear ordering to have more exotic counterexamples
 
No, linear ordering, but not what's called a "linear continuum."
Of course, you can break the LUB axiom with $\Bbb Q$ ...
 
yeah, so is $\Bbb{R} - \{\text{insert sequence of numbers to take away}\}$ in general, those are the dense linear orderings but not linear continua
 
right ...
 
But I am interested in more exotic ways to break least upper bound, if any
 
4:35 PM
So you've been reading Munkres?
 
Well, I read Munkres 6 months ago although I stopped halfway before continuous functions because then my chemistry PhD started
 
Weird to tackle Munkres without doing serious analysis first :P
 
but failed to be mathematician is going through munkres recently, and when I read his recent question on proving lub, after explosive generalisation, lead me to this curiosity on what are the all possible classes of sets that break LUB look like
 
Here's an example you should think about. Take a two-element set, say, $\{1,2\}$ and cross with $\Bbb Z$, in the dictionary order. So $(1,a)<(2,b)$ for all $a,b$, and $(i,a)<(i,b) \iff a<b$.
Can you give me a set that's bounded above but has no LUB?
 
4:53 PM
$\{\forall a \in \Bbb{Z} : (1,a)\}$ or in general, any unbounded from above sequence of $a$ s forming a sequences of $(1,a)$. "The want to be least upper bound" would be the greatest lower bound of $\{\forall b\in \Bbb{Z} : (2,b)\}$ which there is no smallest $b$ thus such greatest lower bound does not exist
 
There you go.
Although I don't like your set notation. You should write $\{(1,a): a\in\Bbb Z\}$, etc.
 
right, because the tuples are the elements
so the above example will be the class where $L(B)$ is unbounded from below in the LUB proof. Now I guess the harder question is: Can we prove that dense linear orderings which are not linear continua, and all sets $B$ such that $L(B)$ is unbounded from below the only two "classes" of LUB breaking sets, and how to approach such proof?
 
I doubt one can prove such a thing.
What you said isn't right, anyhow, as any element of our set is a lower bound for $B$.
 
ah right, I mean the set $U(B)$ which is the set of all upper bounds of $B$, and $U(B)$ is unbounded from below
 
Not having a least upper bound goes along with not having a greatest lower bound, so it's basically circular.
I thought $B$ was your set of upper bounds.
In our example, the set of upper bounds is bounded below. There's just no greatest lower bound.
That's always going to happen if the LUB axiom fails. If you poke a hole in a linear continuum, it's the identical phenomenon.
 
5:02 PM
I see, so basically they are the same as the "poke a hole in the linear continuum" cases
hmm...
let me think a bit on how to construct a nonempty set $B$ such that $L(B)$ is empty...
 
Well, conceptually, our example we've been talking about is very different. You can't add something to "fill in a hole," but the phenomenon is analogous — one "line" is the upper bounds for the other, and, vice versa, the other is the lower bounds for the second.
You can't. If $B$ is the set of upper bounds for a set $A$, then any $a\in A$ is a lower bound for $B$.
 
Did someone say ordered set?
 
I am suspecting for that example, we can extend the set by adjoining an element $(1,\infty)$ such that $\forall a,b \in \Bbb{Z} : (1,a) < (1,\infty) < (2,b)$, then the hole should be filled in the extension
o wait, maybe not, because I can just pick
$\{(1,a) : a \in \Bbb{Z}\} \cup \{(1,\infty)\}$ and we will be screwed as before (because there is no smallest $b$)
hmm... this case is interesting...
 
Heya @Alessandro. Here's our expert. :P
 
5:17 PM
 
@Secret: Well, now $(1,\infty)$ is the LUB of our original subset.
But if you add it to the subset, then $(1,\infty)$ is the LUB and it's in the set.
This is like taking $(0,1)\cup (1,2)\subset\Bbb R$ and throwing in $1$.
Or you could try $(0,1)\cup (2,3)$ for fun. :P
 
yup, but we can play the same game again and we will found $\{(1,a) : a \in \Bbb{Z}\}
\cup \{(1,\infty)\}$ still have no LUB, thus technically the hole cannot be filled by adjoining elements
so it is as you said, very different from the "poke hole in a linear continuum case"
 
Well, is it?
No, the set you just defined does have a LUB. It's $(1,\infty)$.
The LUB can certainly belong to the set.
 
ah right...
I almost forgot that LUB can also be the max
> However, every linear order can be extended to a linear order which satisfies the least upper bound property by considering a construction similar to the construction of the real numbers by a Dedekind completion of the rationals.
So by Asaf's comment, since the usual lexicographical order is a linear order, it means any holes can be filled in
so that means in order to have sets with holes so big that it can never be filled, we will be going into partial orders. But I will stop here for now as that's too much explosive generalisation in a day
 
This probably gets into some interesting set theory if you proceed far enough. I leave you to @Alessandro.
Re the multivariable analysis stuff, you saw my answer earlier, @Secret? I can email you problem sets but mostly they refer to exercises in the book.
 
5:27 PM
@TedShifrin I think it is silent that asked for the exercise?
 
Oh, oops. You both start with S. My apologies.
hides in embarrassment
 
Here's an interesting order on $Bbb R$ to think about: you can think about $\Bbb R$ as $\Bbb Z\times[0,1)$ (the stuff on the left and on the right of the comma), the usual order on $Bbb R$ is the lexicographic one. The antilexicographic one is a linear order on an uncountable set in which every element has a unique immediate successor and a unique immediate predecesser!
 
hmm, what does antilexicographic mean?
Oh, I see, we go horizontally instead of vertically ...
 
You compare the second coordinate first
And the first one if needed
 
This is why I love infinities. They are so cool (and they are one of the primary reasons I get into topology before analysis as I never can fit that into my undergrad which was packed with my chemistry and physics degree stuff)
 
5:35 PM
@TedShifrin Hi
 
hi @Abcd
 
@TedShifrin Comparing 2^pi and pi^2 , proof verification needed
 
@Alessandro: Or you just write $[0,1)\times\Bbb Z$ for dopes like me ;P
 
Define: $f(x) = x^{\frac 1x}$ for $x>0$

$f'(x)= \dfrac{x^{\frac1 x}(1-\ln x)}{x^2}$

Thus, $f(x)$ is strictly increasing till $x= e$ and strictly decreasing after $x=e$.

Now, which number is closer to $e$, $2$ or $\pi$?

$e\approx 2.7, \pi \approx 3.14$ , thus it's $\pi$ which is closer to $e$.

$\implies f(\pi)> f(e)$

$\implies \pi^{\frac 1\pi}> 2^{\frac 12}$
Raise both sides to the power $2\pi$ to get:
$$ \bbox[5px,border:2px solid black]
{
\pi^2 > 2^\pi
}
$$
 
@Abcd: Personally, I would take logs first and look at $f(x)=\dfrac{\ln x}x$.
 
5:39 PM
@TedShifrin Do you see any loophole in my proof
 
I don't think it's about who's closer to $e$. The graph isn't symmetric, after all.
That's a big loophole.
 
@TedShifrin So how do I fix it
@TedShifrin ya, i know.
 
I don't see how to fix it.
Maybe Taylor estimates on the $f(x)$ I gave?
 
Or plug it into Wolfram eh
 
Using physics the answer is easier
$\pi^2 = g$
$2^{\pi} = 8$
 
5:42 PM
Actually I messed that order up earlier I think
Can't think about two things at the same time
 
Oh there is an elementary argument
2^(1/2) = 4^(1/4)
 
@TedShifrin Is that OK as a Math.SE answer? (with equalities replaced by approx sign)
 
Because x^(1/x) is decreasing after e...
 
@MikeMiller Hmm yes.
 
5:44 PM
confirmed alessandro's statement
 
Ah, that's super clever, @MikeM.
 
Now I am wondering about my Physics Answer.
@TedShifrin What are your thoughts on it?
 
I don't know what you're talking about, @Abcd.
 
@TedShifrin $\pi^2 = \text{gravitational acceleration}= g$ is well known.
 
What?
 
5:45 PM
yes.
 
If it's well-known, why is that I've never seen it?
 
@Secret Isnt it well known?
@TedShifrin Maybe its been long since you did physics?
 
No physicist I know has ever mentioned such a thing.
What's the proof, if it's "true"?
 
@Abcd no I am referring to an earlier comment while we are discussing about ordered sets
 
Its mentioned in endless simple harmonic motion problems.
 
5:47 PM
Not in any course or text I've ever seen.
 
@Secret No, I was asking you because you spend some time on h bar
 
This must be some crazy Chinese thing.
3
 
no
 
@Abcd how on earth is $\pi^2$ the same as the gravitational constant??
 
@Secret i said gravitational acceleration not gravitational constant
 
5:48 PM
It's not even close as an approximation. This is garbage.
 
9
A: Why is "$\pi^2= g $" where $g$ is the gravitational constant?

iqopiMaybe this helps: link Looks like some time ago the second was defined by $1/2$ of the oscillation time of a $1$ meter long pendulum. The oscillation time of a pendulum is given by $T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}$. With $T = 2$ and $L = 1$ this gives $g = \pi^2$

 
wired.com/2013/03/what-does-pi-have-to-do-with-gravity/
quora.com/Why-does-π-2-g
 
First of all, a pendulum is only an approximation of SHM. SMH.
I'm done with it.
It's a lame approximation. It's certainly NOT any sort of equality.
 
I know
 
5:50 PM
Well, you're not acting like you know.
annoyed
 
It cannot be an equality, because
g 9.80665 (units)
but $\pi^2 \approx 9.86960440109$
that's way off on just the 2nd d.p.
 
@Secret okay at least $\pi^2 \approx g$
 
I am not sure if you want to have a huge error when using that approximation
 
I mean its OK to use it compare $2^\pi$ and $\pi^2$
 
well, Mike justified how that work abstractly, thus I am convinced
 
5:54 PM
@Secret I am really not telling any one to use it. My only point is that it can be used to compare 2^pi and pi^2
 
ok
 
I am just wondering if I should add that as an answer to this question^
But I am also wondering if everyone will kill me if I do that
3
Q: How to compare $2^{\pi}$ and $\pi^2$ using calculus

Umesh shankarHow to compare $2^{\pi}$ and $\pi^2$ using calculus I guess $$f(x)=\frac{\ln x}{x}$$ wont help here since $2 \lt e \lt \pi$

 
if that is going to be an answer, you cannot use $\pi^2 \approx g$ because the real reason why it works is the asymptotic behaviour that Mike outlined
at least I will roast you if you put an imprecise answer lol
 
 
2 hours later…
7:56 PM
Isn't it true that $U-A$ is open if $U$ is open and $A$ is closed, because $U-A = U \cap (X-A)$ which is an intersection of two open sets?
 
Thanks!
 
8:11 PM
o/
 
 
1 hour later…
9:11 PM
I'm wondering how this image suggests relationships to the golden ratio?
(It should show if you click on it)
 
mathworld has a (rather involved looking) algebraic derivation of such: mathworld.wolfram.com/Pentagram.html
 
@Semiclassical should I delete the question from the main site?
 
@idonutunderstand This isn't necessary, but chat is somewhat ephemeral. You might read through the material in the links and answer your own question
 
up to you. i will note that it's not that far in content from this older question: math.stackexchange.com/q/1385599/137524
this answer is also pertinent: math.stackexchange.com/a/2394127/137524
 
9:52 PM
How do you determine the number of lines in a finite projective plane?
for example the fano plane has 7 points and 7 lines
but if you count all the line segments there are more than 7 total lines
 
One defines a set of lines and a set of points and hopes they satisfy some axioms
 
Zee
10:36 PM
Milnor Morse theory remark at end of page 13, how does p not belong to the manifold ?
 
He means that when you consider that picture think of that as punctured at p
So the piece between a and b is a punctured annulus
 
Zee
Is this manifold three dimensional ?
Or is it a surface, I can’t really tell from the picture
Actually I think what you said holds in both cases so it don’t matter
Thanks
 
Isa
11:34 PM
Is Measure theory easier than Topology? Or is Topology easier than Measure Theory?
undergraduate
course
 
depends
 
what do you find "easy"?
 
Isa
pde course
topology is a little bit challenging
but is not that difficult
I don't know how is Measure Theory, could it be compared with another math course?
 
@Isa I like this book
3
 
Isa
ok I'll check it
 

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