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7:00 PM
o.O
First this chat goes wild about fixed points, and now about periodic points
 
Now we just need to start talking about period 3 points and we'll be bound for chaos.
 
@SteamyRoot Whoah I think I have a counterexample to the fixed set thingy from this morning
Or at least the set-theoretic version
 
To what part of the fixed set thingy exactly?
 
There exists a set $X$ and a function $f:X\to X$ such that $f(\bigcap_n f^n(X))\ne\bigcap_n f^n(X)$
That is, $\bigcap_nf^n(X)$ not necessarily fixed by $f$
 
Okay, so what's the example?
 
7:07 PM
Trying to think of the best way to describe it
 
$\{\forall a,b \in \omega_2,(-\infty,b),(a,\infty),(a,b)\}$
check convergence on $(0,0)$:

$\forall a \in \omega_2, (0,0)\subseteq(0,a)$ thus $(0,a)$ is a nbhd of $(0,0)$

Thus $(0,0)\subseteq (0,0)$ thus $(0,0)$ is a nbhd

Any countable sequence $\{(a,b)\}$, with $a,b$ both $\to 0$ converges to $(0,0)$

Uncountable nets, need to check its definition again...
 
o.O
Not sure what $\omega_2$ is.
 
$X=\Bbb Z_{\le0}\cup\{1'\}\cup\{1'',2''\}\cup\{1''',2''',3'''\}\cup\dotsb$
 
But - you're sure this space is Hausdorff and compact?
 
where $\Bbb Z_{\le0}=\{\dots,-2,-1,0\}$.
 
7:08 PM
$\omega_2$ second uncountable ordinal.

I am not sure, I just try to work out its topological properties. The set is $\omega_2 \times [0,1)$ btw
 
$f$ subtracts $1$ from each element, keeping the same amount of tick marks if possibly
 
Oh, nevermind, for a second I thought that was Akiva's counterexample >.<
 
so $1^{\prime\prime\dots\prime}\mapsto0$ no matter how many tick marks there are, for example
 
Ugh, I thought I'd left my days of thinking about steepest descent approximations behind.
 
Right... And this set has the discrete topology?
 
7:10 PM
But they just keep dragging me back in :P
 
@SteamyRoot I'm doing the set-theoretic version right now, so no topology
In any case, $\bigcap_nf^n(X)=\Bbb Z_{\le0}$, but that's not fixed under $f$.
 
nope, because it is basically the closed long ray with $\omega_1$ (first uncountable ordinal) replaced by $\omega_2$ it should have the natural topology the order topology
 
@AkivaWeinberger What do you mean with "set-theoretic version" ?
 
5 mins ago, by Akiva Weinberger
There exists a set $X$ and a function $f:X\to X$ such that $f(\bigcap_n f^n(X))\ne\bigcap_n f^n(X)$
 
Oh.
 
7:11 PM
Dealing with sets rather than topological spaces
 
So no continuity conditions on $f$
 
However, it may be possible to embed this into a topological space
(Into a compact and Hausdorff one)
But does the example make sense?
For any $n$, there's a sequence of length $n$ that kind of "feeds into" $0$
but there's no infinite sequence
 
Hmm.... given an increasing countable sequence $\{(a,b)\}$ with $a,b \to \infty$, it does not seemed clear to me which $\omega_n$ it will converge to. I need to think about this later...
 
@PVAL-inactive This is equivalently asking if we can start with S^n and add finitely many cells of degree n+1 or higher so that the resulting space is different but has the same homotopy groups. This seems very unlikely but also completely intractable.
 
Wait, why is $\cap_n f^n(X) = \mathbb{Z}_{\leq 0}$ ?
 
7:15 PM
@SteamyRoot Well, first off, do you see why $0\in\bigcap_nf^n(X)$?
 
For any $k$ and any $n$, the element $f^n (k+n) = k$
 
@SteamyRoot And do you see why $1'\notin\bigcap_nf^n(X)$?
 
Oh, wait
 
Note that there is no element called $2'$
 
Yeah, those ticks.
 
7:16 PM
@MikeMiller Why do you know you only have 1 n-cell (up to homotopy type)
 
@Secret be specific
 
Right, yes, that works as a space.
 
@SteamyRoot I'm thinking maybe there should be another way to describe the set
but yeah, there are $n$ elements with $n$ ticks
 
I mean you have the map $S^n \to X$ gives an isomorphism on $\pi_n$ so there's something you get.
 
so $f^n(n^{\prime\prime\dotsb\prime})=0$, yeah?
 
7:17 PM
@LeakyNun well, it seemed to heavily depend on the terms in the sequence for example $\{(n,n)\}$ $n\to \Bbb{N}$, will it converge to $\omega_1$ or $\omega_2$?
 
@PVAL We know its nth homology and you can make a space out of as few cells as its homology demands.
 
But there's nothing that'll give you $n^{\prime\prime\dotsb\prime}$
 
Yup.
 
(if there are $n$ ticks there)
 
@Secret which topology? the ultra-long line?
 
7:18 PM
So we agree the intersection of repeated applications of $f$ is $\Bbb Z_{\le0}$ @SteamyRoot
But then $f(\Bbb Z_{\le0})=\Bbb Z_{\le-1}$
 
Ya I know all that. There's only one map the equivalence could be. That's why you can talk about building it up from the sphere.
 
@LeakyNun It should be the order topology since it is basically constructed by replacing $\omega_1$ of the long line with $\omega_2$
 
Yeah, don't worry, I already understand the entire thing now :P
 
I thought about it for a bit before responding I just made no progress.
 
It's indeed a counterexample to the "set-theoretic" version
 
7:19 PM
I am trying to use it to understand higher cardinals that is not just about their sizes
 
@SteamyRoot I knew there was something bothering me this morning when some claimed to prove it using just set-theoretic techniques!
 
@Secret what is the long line?
 
$\omega_1 \times [0,1)$
 
The picture I have is that the first level the map isn't an iso you add a cell and in a dimension above that add some cells to kill off your original pi_n+k and remake it with new relator cells.
 
@Secret Other way 'round I think
 
7:20 PM
@Secret then what the hell is $(n,n)$?
 
Well, yeah, it would be very suspicious that the question asks it for a Hausdorff compact space and a continuous map; and you wouldn't need those at all :P
 
@AkivaWeinberger I don't think so
In topology, the long line (or Alexandroff line) is a topological space somewhat similar to the real line, but in a certain way "longer". It behaves locally just like the real line, but has different large-scale properties (e.g., it is neither Lindelöf nor separable). Therefore, it serves as one of the basic counterexamples of topology. Intuitively, the usual real-number line consists of a countable number of line segments [0, 1) laid end-to-end, whereas the long line is constructed from an uncountable number of such segments. == Definition == The closed long ray L is defined as the carte...
 
Well, the continuous and compactness stuff was used to make sure the intersection is nonempty
@SteamyRoot
 
But this so chaotically and drastically changes higher homotopy groups you have no reason to guess some number of cells will magically end up changing all the higher ones back.
 
Since long line (and also the "ultralong line") has the order topology, its points are of the form $(a,b)$
 
7:21 PM
@Mike I think you can do that, and there should be a proof that something like that never terminates analogous to the infinite dimensional ness of Eilenberg MacLane spaces.
 
so $\{(n,n)\},n\in \Bbb{N}$ is the sequence $\{(0,0),(1,1),(2,2,),...\}$
 
@Secret no, (1,1) isn't in the topology. $(a,b)$ where $a \in \omega_2$ and $b \in [0,1)$.
 
You can do that but I don't expect a proof it can't terminate
 
@Secret What's the ultralong line, $\omega_2\times[0,1)$? I thought that wasn't locally homeomorphic to $\Bbb R$
You get problems at like $\langle\omega_1,0\rangle$
 
I suspect most sequences of homotopy groups can't be realized by a f.d. complex.
 
7:23 PM
I am not currently interested with $\Bbb{R}$, I want to understand the bahaviour of higher cardinal sets and I am pretty sure it is not just about their size
 
Oh OK sure
 
He has the lexographical order topology on it
 
@SteamyRoot So the question is… can we embed that into a Hausdorff compact space
 
No.
Because the theorem holds for a Hausdorff compact space :P
 
uh wait a sec.. I am confused temporarily...
 
7:24 PM
Oh, wait, I think the reason is that we can consider the sequence $(1',2'',3''',\dots)$
 
Why can't all curves be straight lines?
 
It's a compact space so it must have a convergent subsequences and that messes it up somehow
@Axoren What?
 
@AkivaWeinberger it boggles me that $\omega_1 \times [0,1)$ must have cardinality $\mathfrak c$...
 
@LeakyNun Order topology is generated by the base $\{(-\infty,b),(a,b),(a,\infty)\}$, right?
 
@LeakyNun Is that true??
 
7:25 PM
But what's the historical reason behind "arithmetic" @MikeMiller?
 
Oh, in ZFC probably
Not necessarily in ZF
I think
 
sure
 
@AkivaWeinberger I'm just kind of frustrated that some formulas I'm working on are complicated by the fact that I'm not guaranteed straight lines.
 
What subject?
 
@Mike for instance if the map wasn't surjective for exactly one of the $\pi_k$ you could kill off the original sphere and then get a f.d. Eilenberg MacLane space.
 
7:26 PM
@Secret yes
but beware that $b$ is also a tuple
 
ah ok
 
@AkivaWeinberger I guess Differential Geometry, but it's more like most subjects of math all at once. I'm trying to get a simple formulation for gradient descent of a specific cost function.
 
@AkivaWeinberger That's sequentially compact, though :P
 
And the integral curve doesn't end up being a geodesic, so I need to calculate it's curve rather than just using the exponential map.
 
The cool thing about higher cardinals is that you can no longer count or rely on $\Bbb{R}$ thus working with them force you to think with infinities
(paraphasing thinking with portals)
 
7:28 PM
actually nevermind this probably messes with higher homotopy groups.
 
When do you think about $\mathbb{R}$ when thinking about cardinals?
Are you talking about $\omega$ and everything else is higher
 
$\aleph_1$ is the cardinality of $\Bbb{R}$ if continuum hypothesis holds
 
Really?
 
@SteamyRoot Compact implies sequentially compact
@Secret Speedy set goes in, speedy set comes out
 
@PaulPlummer I just imagine a very large amount.
 
7:29 PM
If it is false $\aleph_2$ could be the cardinality of $\mathbb{R}$,
 
yup
 
@AkivaWeinberger wut
 
So my idea of higher cardinals is $\aleph_n,n > 1$
 
It might be helpful for countable cardinals, since you get embedding results (but you can just think about the rationals
 
@SteamyRoot Doesn't it? It's the reverse that fails
 
7:30 PM
Both fail in general.
 
Every sequence in a compact set has a convergent subsequence
 
That's just the definition on sequential compactness :/
 
@SteamyRoot Really??
Do we need compact and Hausdorff?
 
Not really seeing where $\mathbb{R}$ comes in. Do you have an example where you rely on $\mathbb{R}$ to get results about $\aleph_1$ (that isn't about reals) @Secret
 
I thought for sure this was true…
 
7:32 PM
I am working under ZFC where GCH is true, so $|\Bbb{R}|=\aleph_1=2^{\aleph_0}$
 
Time to check Counterexamples in Topology
 
uh, wait a sec.. I might have misunderstood you question, in that case I am not sure except for the cardinality
 
$I^I$ is a compact Hausdorff space that is not sequentially compact
 
I am no expert, but pretty sure most people interested in cardinals find GCH makes the theory quite boring. I don't really think the reals give a good intuition about $\aleph$'s in either case anyways (you don't have an explicit bijection or way to think about such an ordering of the reals).
I could be mistaken though
 
"Erik Christopher Zeeman tried for 7 years to prove that one cannot untie a knot on a 4-sphere. Then one day he decided to try to prove the opposite, and succeeded in a few hours."
9
 
7:39 PM
@SteamyRoot What's the sequence
 
"A "theorem" of Jan-Erik Roos in 1961 stated that in an [AB4*] abelian category, lim1 vanishes on Mittag-Leffler sequences. This "theorem" was used by many people since then, but it was disproved by counterexample in 2002 by Amnon Neeman."
 
@Axoren What, a regular one-dimensional knot?
Isn't that well-known?
 
@Akiva let me check the specifics. I'm just looking at disproven mathematical hypotheses right now. Many of them are well-known now, such as irrational numbers.
 
According to Counterexamples: "$I^I$ is not sequentially compact since the sequence of functions $\alpha_n \in I^I$ defined by $\alpha_n(x) = $ the $n$th digit in the binary expansion of $x$ has no convergent subsequence. "
 
Oh god
Wow
 
7:43 PM
The Stone-Cech compactification of the integers is supposedly another counterexample, but I'm not even going to try understand that one.
 
@Danu I am wrong. Hirzebruch introduced it.
 
\o @MikeMiller
 
$\omega_2 \times [0,1)$

Base: $\{(a,b)\},a \in \omega_2, b \in [0,1)$

Check $(0,0)$ convergence

Since $(0,0) \subseteq (0,0)$ thus $(0,0)$ is nbhd of itself. Now $(0,0) \subseteq (0,b), b \in [0,1)$ therefore sequences and nets that converge to $(0,0)$ must be of the form $\{(a,b),a,b \to 0\}$. For example $\{(0,n)\}$ where n are the dyadic rationals $\frac{1}{2^m},m\in \Bbb{N}$ arranged in increasing powers of $\frac{1}{2}$

Check $(\omega_1,0)$ convergence

Ok it's getting late (early?) 5:44, will continue this tmr...
 
@AkivaWeinberger I can't find the specifics of what type of knot, but what might be well-known now might not have been back when he proved it.
The article wikipedia uses for reference is behind a paywall, and I can't find any other mention of it
 
The proof for $I^I$ is actually really doable. If $(\alpha_n)_n$ has a convergent subsequence $(\alpha_{n_k})_k$, say it converges to $\alpha$. Then for any $x \in I$, $\alpha_{n_k}(x)$ converges to $\alpha(x)$.
Now let $p \in I$ such that $\alpha_{n_k}(p) = (n_k \mod 2)$. Then the sequence $\alpha_{n_k}(p)$ is just $0, 1, 0, 1, \dots$, which does not converge.
 
7:48 PM
@Axoren by "opposite" do they mean converse?
 
@Axoren This quote stinks of ignorance on whoever was commenting.
 
@Axoren The way this is written, it sounds like he could've skipped all those years and proven the counterexample right away.
 
I mean the other quote.
I don't think Zeeman or really anyone after Reidmeister thought you couldn't unknot a circle in 4-space.
I suspect the theorem Zeeman proved was quite a bit better of a result than that.
 
Hey everyone!
 
Heya Demonark
 
7:55 PM
Hi
 
And, yes, $I^I$ is not sequentially compact. I used to give this example every time I taught point set topology.
 
How's everything going?
 
same Zeeman as Zeeman effect?
 
@Ted would locally compact spaces have some sort of Heine-Borel type of theorem?
 
By which you mean?
 
8:08 PM
@Semiclassical i doubt a physicist would spend 7 years on a math proof :P
 
depends on the physicist :P
 
True dat
 
What I have in mind is basically Heine-Borel, but maybe there's something similar to it but not precisely the same
 
What do you mean by Heine-Borel?
 
Ah, nope. Christopher Zeeman vs. Pieter Zeeman
 
8:09 PM
That in $\Bbb R^n$ compact is equivalent to closed and bounded?
 
Yeah
 
That doesn't even generalize to metric spaces ...
 
Well metric spaces aren't necessarily locally compact, take a Banach space
 
It doesn't generalize to $\Bbb R$ with a bounded metric.
Which is totally locally compact.
 
Oh yikes, okay :/
 
8:12 PM
The right theorem invokes total boundedness.
And then it holds in any complete metric space, if I recall.
 
Yeah
 
G'night, @MikeM.
 
Ain't seen much of you lately ...
I hope that's a good sign.
 
8:23 PM
Heya Alessandro.
 
a subset of a metric space is compact iff it is totally bounded and complete @Dami
that's a generalization of Heine-Borel, I don't know how useful it is though
 
I'm aware of that, I'm just wondering what's the class of spaces on which something closer to HB holds. Right now I'm wondering if vector spaces on the p-adics would do it
Which should probably reduce to proving that closed balls are compact in the p-adics
 
8:39 PM
Rehi chat
 
Rewelcome pal
 
$X$ is normal. $p : X\to X \ ^ *$ is a quotient map that is closed. i want to show $X \ ^ * $ is normal.
Given $A \subset V$ where $A $ is closed and $V $ is open i want to find $U$ open nhbd of $A$ s.t $\overline U \subset V$.
So, $p \ ^ {-1}(A) \subset p \ ^ {-1}(V) $ , $X$ is normal so there is $U$
$p \ ^ {-1}(A) \subset U \subset \overline U \subset p \ ^ {-1}(V) $ .
Now
$A \subset p (U) \subset p (\overline U) \subset V$. and $p (\overline U) $ is closed because $p$ is closed. how to continue from here?
 
No @HenningMakholm this is skullpatrol.
 
heya @Astyx. Tu vis toujours?
 
hi @Astyx
 
8:50 PM
Pour le moment on dirait @Ted
Peut être moins au moment des resultats
 
OK ... on verra.
 
how was your exam? @astyx
 
Tu n'es jamais content :P
 
Je serai content si je suis admis :p
 
nvm about my question , solved it.
 
8:52 PM
It's over now @AlessandroCodenotti, that's what matters :p
I'll see when I get the results
I don't want to make suppositions
 
good, @Liad. :)
 
It's probably the best attitude to have anyway :P
 
I got the results of my exam back in the meantime, it went better than expected
I'll have to take the oral part of the exam on Monday
 
Oh, that's cool, @Alessandro.
 
8:57 PM
Oh, so soon ?
I'm glad for you :)
 
Oral is generally considered easier than written.
 
Depends really
I think I'm better at written exams
 
Not to mention lab exams :P
 
Which are the worst of them all imho :)
 
Yeah, they are a mix.
 
9:04 PM
I prefer oral exams over written ones, however the oral part of the probability exam is mandatory only if you get a good grade in the written part so I was kinda hoping I could avoid doing it
 
So you wanted to keep failing the written?
 
there are a lot of options between failing and a good grade :P
 
So they reward you for a mediocre pass by letting you skip the oral? I guess the oral gives you a chance at distinction?
 
I don't understand it either, it's the first exam I have organized like that
 
What I conjectured is the only thing that makes sense to me, but I was sure you'd know what was going on :)
 
9:09 PM
I guess they wanna see who are the "used car salespeople" out there.
 
this random variable was used only once per week by an old lady to decide how many groceries to buy, it's as good as new
 
interesting that skull should mention car ... I still have nightmares that Alessandro is running me over ...
 
lol
maths exams look easier than the driving one at the moment
 
well, keep that attitude :P
 
All my driving exams are both harder and more difficult than my math exams
 
9:17 PM
What's the distinction between being hard and being difficult?
 
is there one?
 
I didn't think so. Otherwise we can just say that Astyx is from the department of redundancy department
 
Time for an inappropriate joke
@Daminark I'm fine with a woman being difficult, but hard... :/
5
 
@Daminark if there's one thing I learned from the cryptography part of the abstract algebra course is that redundancy is great
 
I've never been redundant nor have I ever said the same thing twice in a row
6
 
9:20 PM
Lier, lier; neither have I.
 
Well, Astyx is definitely an outlier.
 
Yeah you're being a dishonest lier
 
(by the way I meant to say "easier and more difficult")
 
@Alessandro explain?
 
@TedShifrin I was thinking about an outlier joke as well, I had too much probability
 
9:21 PM
well, until skull corrects his spelling, it stands ...
 
I'm not sure wether me being an outlier is a good or a bad thing
 
@Dami that's the basic idea behind error correcting codes, we add bits of redundancy to a message that are used only to detect (and sometimes correct) errors in transmitted message, rather than being used to send more informations
a classical example is the (7,4) Hamming code, every $7$ bits $4$ are used to encode the message we want to send and $3$ are parity bits that allow to find and correct a single error in any one of the $7$ bits
 
Ah
 
Have you watched Hamming's lectures on YouTube?
 
I didn't know they were recorded, interesting
 
9:31 PM
Good stuff.
 
I'll look them up after I'm done with my exams
I'm going to sleep now though, bye everyone
 
Cya
 
See you!
 
Bye
What's this story about net neutrality ?
 
In the US they want to spy on all our net activity and email and ...
 
9:35 PM
They want to legalize the spying they kind of already do :^)
 
...trump mania
 
So this is specific to the US ?
 
we presume so, Astyx.
 
Unless you somehow use an American ISP in France, yes :P
 
(btw I still don't know wether "outlier" has a pejorative connotation, or any connotation ?)
 
9:36 PM
If you feel left out, we get spied on too, don't worry.
 
Yeah, I guess so :p
 
I was mostly just punning on skull's misspelling.
outlier = non-conformist
 
Yeah, I know, I'm just curious
Is it pejorative ?
 
Nah
 
I know you like to think I'm always insulting you, Astyx, but I'm really not :D
 
9:38 PM
Like a rebel is an outlier in a sense.
 
Right, thanks :p
 
hi chat
net neutrality is more about allowing ISPs to charge you more money for less services while screwing over competition than it is abt spying
 
Money is always the bottom line.
hi btw
 
My university's ISP is better than any publicly available one... so if something similar gets legalised here, I'm moving to my office - permanently.
 
Aren't they already allowed to do that ?
 
9:52 PM
@Astyx i mean slow down internet depending on what it's used for basically
which isn't legal
bc internet is treated like a utility, like water
 
Oh, yeah, that would be terrible
 
As soon as you listen to the Soviet anthem, your internet slows down so hard you can't get past 5 seconds :^)
 
I wouldn't be able to waste my time on the internet as efficiently as I am now
 
yeah it would let companies like Spectrum which have services that compete with netflix slow down your internet if you try to access netflix
 
As much of a joke as that may be, you're basically allowing censorship through that way :P
 
9:53 PM
which is suuuuuper scummy
 
The market is getting more nasty.
 
The market always has been nasty
Hi @Dami
 
yeah i think it's less abt the market in this case than corporate interests trying to shut down the market and control it
 
Isn't that what happened to Microsoft?
 
10:50 PM
Say, if $x$ is algebraic, is it necessarily the case that $|x|$ is also algebraic?
(assume $x\in\mathbb C$)
 
11:20 PM
Oh, wait, nevermind.
It's too early in the morning to think properly.
@SimplyBeautifulArt I'd guess so. If $z$ is algebraic, probably its complex conjugate is too. Then the product of those two, the modulus squared, is algebraic too. And finally, the root of the modulus squared should be algebraic too...
 
11:39 PM
Hello chat.
 
Hi pal.
 
@SteamyRoot Ah yes, that was simple xD
xD You know, in every instance when I used fractional calculus, it was always for a fractional calculus problem, until I just solved this problem
Basically, the following series is not extremely immediate to solve:
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{x^n}{\Gamma(n+\alpha)}$$
For any $\alpha\in\mathbb N$, this trivial reduces to exponential functions, and this can be seen by differentiating the Taylor expansion for $e^x$.
In the same spirit, one can take fractional derivatives of $e^x$ to solve the above problem, with an end result of incomplete gamma functions
 

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