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3:06 PM
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If there's one thing that drives me nuts about my fellow Christians, it's how we sometimes are so certain that some prophecy is associated with some historical event. It reminds me of the Midianite soldiers who dream about barley bread and say, "Surely this can be none other than the sword of Gi...
^^^ does this mean that questions should not ask about the referent of symbols in apocalyptic/eschatalogical literature (such as the book of Revelation), or just that answers should not go past the time period of the time of writing to find a referent (i.e. Babylon = USA), or something else altogether? Thoughts? (I'm not sure what to make of this)
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4:39 PM
@JackDouglas depending on how you interpret that, exegetically could mean not reading anything into the text it doesn't say (i.e. you couldn't say the USA = Babylon since USA is not in the text and thus can't be drawn from it, which is the literal meaning of 'exegetical')
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9:34 PM
When that takes place withing the bounds of scripture (e.g., 1 Cor 10:4b, or 1 Peter 1:25b), that is Scripture, and part of the world of those who wrote the Bible.
As I understand it, "historicism" in (philosophical) hermeutics is quite a different beast. See for example:
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