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If $\nu_p(4n-1)< \nu_p(n!)$ for all primes $p \mid (4n-1)$, then we have-
$$x^2 = 4n!-4n+1=(4n-1)(\frac{4n!}{4n-1}-1)$$
and for every $p \mid (4n-1)$, we also have $p \mid \frac{4n!}{4n-1}$. Thus-
$$\gcd\bigg(4n-1,\frac{4n!}{4n-1}-1\bigg)=1 \implies (4n-1)=x_1^2$$
However, this is impossible as $...