@T.E.D. Literature attributed to Aristotle is not remotely related to the actual question. Moor is a nationality having absolutely nothing to do with either "race" or "black". Am curious why you and the moderator team have not flagged this answer yourselves as not answering the question?

If you are genuinely curious about the standards I apply for intervening on answers, I'd suggest reading my answer on this Meta question:

@T.E.D. Given your reference "The answer is flagged for moderator attention as not being a real answer and it fits one of the criteria listed above as "not a real answer" and one of the following is true" -> "It is indisputably a comment rather than an answer, but I can save it by moving it to a comment." certainly applies as to all the references to literature attributed to Aristotle. Kindly explain how literature attributed to Aristotle is historically related to the question?

Not really. Disputably perhaps. But I have a very high standard for "indisputably". Like it includes text from another answer and only addresses that, or contains the words "This is really a comment on X's answer..."

@T.E.D. If we were to accept the premise that Aristotle existed as a human being on this planet, the date of their life is 384–322 B.C.E., in what is historically Greece. Any literature that they allegedly composed cannot be post-dated to 1600's nor infer any relation whatsoever to the British Colonies in the 1660's. It cannot be disputed that Aristotle did not exist in the British Colonies in the 1600's. Again, Aristotle is not relevant to the original question.

@T.E.D. In fact, the original question does not mention "racism" at all.