@NiharKarve The claim seems to be I have $2$ equivalent ways of perturbing the Hamiltonian. Let one be $H'$ and the other be $H''$. Is $\langle \bar H'^2 \rangle = \langle \bar H'' \rangle $ the same? Because ultimately I have the same system and how I model it should not give me a different uncertainty principle
Sorry it should be $\langle \bar H'^2 \rangle = \langle \bar H''^2 \rangle$
@RenatoRenatoRenato Ah, okay. If you want to merge your accounts, you can use the contact form to ask SE to merge the accounts so all posts and rep are under a single account