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12:07 PM
Also are all causal curves actually Lipschitz
What about Rindler observers
they have unbounded derivatives
 
@TheRaidersofLasVegas Hard to say. I enjoy Nakahara's book
@JohnRennie Isn't Part III essentially a masters? But I don't know if you get a degree for it
 
12:49 PM
so, is $\mathrm{Res}$ a vector field over $\mathbb C$?
 
Res?
 
$\mathrm{Res}(f\mathrm dx+g\mathrm dx)=\mathrm{Res}(f\mathrm dx)+\mathrm{Res}(g\mathrm dx)$
and $\mathrm{Res}(\lambda f\mathrm dx)=\lambda\mathrm{Res}(f\mathrm dx)$
 
@BenNiehoff as far as I know the part III is unique to the maths department. Arguably it fulfils much the same role as a masters, but it isn't the same.
 
Obviously not if it takes one-forms as arguments
Wait no
That is correct
Vector fields are linear functionals on dual vectors
 
$\mathrm{Res}\colon T^*\mathbb C\to\mathbb C$ linearly, right
 
12:50 PM
So yes
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform What is "Res"?
 
Why does the residue act on 1-forms and not on functions, and why is there no point at which the residue is taken specified?
 
the point is a fixed parameter :-P
but yes, Res is defined on forms, not on functions
eg, what is the residue of $1/z$?
is it 1?
what if I take $\omega=2z$
what is the residue now?
 
12:54 PM
Ah, I see what you mean
Yeah, right, since it's defined through integration the invariant formulation should act on forms
 
1:07 PM
"Milne and McCrea have obtained the remarkable result that Newtonian analogues exist for all the more important models considered by Robertson"
Man that's a 1934 paper
Pretty old
"We can either modify our geometry in order to retain $\delta \int ds = 0$ as the paths of free particles, or retain Euclidian geometry and Minkowski spacetime and modify the variational principle by weighing the elements of path $ds$ with appropriate invariant weighting factors."
 
1:25 PM
@JohnRennie that must have changed now as well :P to obtain a BA you have to have done a part I and a part II. Passing a part III in any subject entities you to the relevant masters degree
(In other words, a part III is some form of masters)
 
1:42 PM
I'm putting Hoyle's steady state theory in the book because I feel a bit sorry for the poor guy
 
@Slereah spacelike ones?
 
There's two big definitions of causal curves
1) piecewise $C^1$ curves with matching time orientations
2) the one with the intersection of CNN possessing a $C^1$ curve connecting the two points
Are they equivalent?
The second one means that the curve is Lipschitz continuous
Which have a zero measure of non-differentiable points
Is that equivalent to piecewise $C^1$?
 
The second is of course more general
 
@0celoñe7 Is there an example of a Lipschitz continuous causal curve that isn't piecewise $C^1$
Is it gonna be one of those garbage fractal curves
Also aren't Lipschitz continuous curves supposed to be of finite derivative
Oh wait
Rindler observers have unbounded acceleration, not derivative
Do they have unbounded derivatives, too???
I think so
 
2:06 PM
@Slereah I don't have one
 
or maybe Kriele meant locally Lipschitz continuous???
I think so since his definition is only the existence of a neighbourhood where that is true
 
Same thing if the curve is defined on $[a,b]$
That should be an exercise for you...
@AccidentalFourierTransform what garbage are you reading?
 
Hm
I know that path integrals are Holder continuous, and they're not piecewise continuous by any stretch of the imagination
I guess I just need slightly better behaved functions
 
what the hell is piecewise continuous
 
not many people have voiced their opinion in that topic
 
2:13 PM
Piecewise $C^1$*
 
@Slereah what the hell is $C^{1*}$?
 
Piecewise $C^1$, the * indicates a correction to my previous sentence
What is even the definition of a fractal curve
One that includes both fractal curves proper and stochastic processes
 
fractals are meme math
I don't think serious people actually care about them
 
Path integrals involve fractals
Kinda
 
0
Q: Variational Principle - Extremum is Eigenvalue

QuasarLet $$A |a\rangle = a|a\rangle.\tag{1}$$ Then the expectation value is $$\langle A\rangle_{\phi}=\frac{\langle\phi|A|\phi\rangle}{\langle \phi|\phi \rangle}.\tag{2}$$ The differential is then $$\delta \langle A\rangle_{\phi} = \frac{1}{\langle \phi|\phi \rangle} \left( \langle\delta \phi |(A-\la...

ah Christ
@Slereah do you have to explicitly deal with the fractals
 
2:21 PM
@0celoñe7 Define "explicitely deal"
The set of non-fractal curves is of measure $0$
And you have to use a special integral for the action
since you can't do Lebesgue integrals on non-Lipschitz continuous curves
 
@Slereah What?
You can Lebesgue integrate anything that is measurable.
I guess the derivatives need not be measurable...fuck
I've integrated derivatives of Lipschitz functions
Oh no, it's possiible
LocLip $\subset W^{1,\infty}$
 
@0celoñe7 It needs a finite measure, yes
Which the fractals don't have
 
2:36 PM
@Slereah they can fill $\Bbb R^3$?
Are they not defined on a compact interval?
 
@Mithrandir24601 perhaps I should stop making statements about Cambridge based on what it was like 35 years ago :-)
 
@0celoñe7 They are contained in a finite volume but of infinite length
 
@JohnRennie why didn't you go to Oxford?
 
they wouldn't have him
Because he's a country bumpkin
 
@Slereah if the integral is on [a,b] I have a hard time believing it could be infinite...
 
2:43 PM
The integral is between two points of the manifold
The curve between which will be of infinite length
 
@TheRaidersofLasVegas I think Cambridge is a nicer town
 
@Slereah did you ever continue reading Jost?
 
Not so far
 
$\Subset$
Aha
@Slereah What are the best Morrowind mods?
I think I'll do a playthrough...
 
2:59 PM
the one where you can kill kids
 
vzn
@0celoñe7 whoa! glib alert o_O :(
 
@0celoñe7 I think except for graphical stuff you shouldn't play with any mods - there are some good ones but they change the game considerably. It's broken enough without mods already ;)
 
$a,b,\cdots$ or $a,b,\dots$?
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform ...why would you ever consider the first?
 
wh$\cdots$ why not?
but yeah, \dots looks better
 
3:11 PM
ok... let's see if I can formulate this better... :
 
@ACuriousMind I watched an "Ultimate Critique" of TW3 which was p. good
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform do you know how to insert a start time into a YouTube video post in here?
 
there was this moment where the guy was talking about Skyrim, and he concluded he had no reason to think Skyrim is a good game
 
yeah
right-click on the video
 
It's interesting, when I think about Skyrim, I don't think it's that good
But as a whole, it's amazing
 
3:13 PM
"copy video URL at current time"
 
hello
 
@TheRaidersofLasVegas Click, share, on the bottom
click the box
copy the link it gives you
 
Right, thanks.
 
3:15 PM
@ACuriousMind Broken in what sense?
 
the first non-trivial irreducible (projective) representation of the Lorentz group in $d=4$ dimensions has dimension $2$ (left/right handed Weyl). What is the dimension of this object for arbitrary $d$? is there a general formula, or is it erratic as in the Majorana case?
if I asked this on the main site, would people vote to migrate to math.SE? is it even a good question?
 
@0celoñe7 I think Skyrim is primarily made to be fun to play. The Witcher is primarily made to be what its makers wanted it to be.
@AccidentalFourierTransform Weyls exist in even dimension, and have half the Dirac spinor dimension.
I.e. $2^{\lfloor d/2 \rfloor - 1}$
 
nice
but is Weyl always the first non-trivial irreducible (projective) representation of the Lorentz group?
 
Do you mean "first" in the sense of "lowest-dimensional"?
 
3:19 PM
@ACuriousMind It's probably the leveling system that makes me enjoy Skyrim so much. I wish I could play SkyRe properly.
 
or, equivalently (?), the lowest spin representation
 
The damn patches made the game unplayable though.
SkyRe conflics with basically every mod.
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform Well, the fundamental has Just dimension $d$, doesn't it?
 
hmm good point
I think I got you
and for odd $d$, Dirac is irreducible, right?
unless Majorana exists, I guess
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform Well...not if there are Majoranas :P
 
3:21 PM
cool, thx
 
daily reminder no one knows in which dimensions there are majoranas
 
If the manifold is curved, partial derivatives have no intrinsic meaning and one must introduce a connection. Is there any sense in which functional derivatives may lose their intrinsic (?) meaning, and one is forced to introduce a connection on the space of functions?
something like $$\frac{\delta}{\delta f(x)}S[f]\to\frac{\delta}{\delta f(x)}S[f]+\mathcal A[f]S[f]$$
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform Function spaces are vector spaces, Frechet/Gateaux derivatives are always defined
If you don't have a vector space, then you might have to do something strange
 
3:32 PM
well, partial derivatives are always defined too, but they may not be good for some purposes
@0celoñe7 and function spaces are always vector spaces?
hmm
 
Lebesgue spaces, Sobolev spaces, Lipschitz spaces, Holder spaces, BMO, BV, ...
Well...you could have a functional on the space of metrics, for instance. That's not a vector space
But it's a cone, so it still works
 
the space of metrics is a cone? what does that even mean?
 
Closed under addition and multiplication by positive numbers. A cone.
 
never heard of it :-P
 
You need to do more functional analysis then.
 
3:41 PM
I don't need to do anything. I'm a free spirit.
user image
5
I do that, with math.
 
@0celoñe7 that, actually, doesnt look bad at all
some day, perhaps
is it good?
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform It's the standard reference, but I haven't read it.
Giaquinta is a very good writer, for what it's worth.
I used his measure theory book for a class and am reading his elliptic regularity book right now.
 
Toy model for a probabilistic interaction:

Suppose there are two particles with initial pure states $\lvert A(0)\rangle$ and $\lvert B(0)\rangle$. We also have some known probability distribution $P : \{0,1,...,n\}\mapsto[0,1]$. Therefore $P(i) \in [0,1]$ and $\sum_{i=0}^nP(i)=1$.

Now, for each $P(i)$ there associates a unitary evolution operator $U_i(t_0,t_1)$, which describes the interaction the two particles will undergone in the time period $[t_0,t_1]$.

When the initial states of the particles $\lvert A(0)\rangle$, $\lvert B(0)\rangle$ is act by $U_i(0,t)$, it produces the correspond
uh wait a sec.. I need to figure out how to take the time evolution of the density matrix correctly as otherwise I have two $P(i)$s in the final expression
 
who starred that? :-P
coincidentally, butts may be fun to look at, but when you are going to get your hands dirty, there are parts that are much more fun to play with than the butt
 
Sid
@AccidentalFourierTransform Heh. Let's star that too. :P
 
ok correction:
\begin{align}
\sum_{i=0}^nP(i)U_i(0,t)\lvert A(0)\rangle \langle A(0)\rvert U_i^{\dagger}(0,t) & =\sum_{i=0}^n P(i)\lvert A_i(t)\rangle \langle A_i(t)\rvert\\
\sum_{i=0}^nP(i)U_i(0,t)\lvert B(0)\rangle \langle B(0)\rvert U_i^{\dagger}(0,t) & =\sum_{i=0}^n P(i)\lvert B_i(t)\rangle \langle B_i(t)\rvert\\
\end{align}
 
@Sid mods are so not gonna like it
 
Sid
(I hope I don't get banned)
 
@Secret 1. Of all the things you need to explain, what a probability distribution is is not one of them. 2. Whatever you're doing here, at the point where you associate a different $U_i$ to each possible outcome, you're not doing quantum mechanics. 3. Your conditions for "distinctness" make no sense to me, That $X$ and $Y$ are "distinct" means usually that $X\neq Y$, not more, not less.
4. Since you are not doing quantum mechanics, it's completely unclear how you arrived at either of your final expressions.
@AccidentalFourierTransform So why did you post it?
 
Anonymous
3:57 PM
You really think AFT does everything for a reason ? :P
 
@ACuriousMind why do you think I only post things if I believe mods are gonna like it?
Im a rebel
 
Re 3: I am actually tried to express the idea that $A_i\neq A_j$ and $A_i \neq B_j$ and $B_i \neq B_j$ but I guess I stick too much on trying to express that via brackets
I think I should have wrote those $\neq$ straight away
 

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