(Sorry was asleep at that time but forgot to log out, hence the apparent lack of response)
Yes you can (since $k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}$). To convert from path difference to phase difference, divide by k, see this PSE for details
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/75882/what-is-the-difference-between-phase-difference-and-path-difference
Yes you can (since $k=\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}$). To convert from path difference to phase difference, divide by k, see this PSE for details
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/75882/what-is-the-difference-between-phase-difference-and-path-difference