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2:24 AM
B A H ~
 
2 hours later…
3:58 AM
myow just got IQ and lifespan robbed by cold fusion stupidities, sigh
@naturallyInconsistent how so
marketing people had to be nice to guests, guests suggested we hire this guy who is into cold fusion, and that means miao miao had to read his papers. Luckily, a cursory reading of the presented data is sufficient. No need to spend a lot of time on the details. For people who write papers incorporating sections on theoretical investigations, one would have hoped that they would be wise enough to estimate the "large energies" that they obtained.
Alas, they did not even try.
Yikes. Yeah I felt that way except on the receiving end when I went to a job fair and the person there was talking to me about how I could contribute to stellarator fusion research im like brother I haven't even started learning physics yet
marketing people are indeed nice.
@Obliv that's not that bad. Actual research rabbit holes are so deep that, it only makes sense to learn on the job. i.e. it is not that bad to hire not-even-yet-starting-undergrads, if it means you can get fired up learning earlier.
True, but I'd feel bad for not knowing how to do literally anything, including writing/debugging code meant for their systems. I don't foresee myself doing anything involved with the physics side of things in research so I should at least learn how to help with the codemonkey tasks :P
btw how is an operator defined on a dual space? Do they map functionals to other functionals?
4:14 AM
Dont feel bad that way. There are a lot of stupid shit that always can use intern labour.
@naturallyInconsistent Okay, I'll keep that in mind.
keep an open mind*
@Obliv You don't have to. Since you already have Riesz rep theorem, you can just define the operator on the dual's dual, and that is more than enough.
oh I guess I'm missing context in that img
eh I'll mull this over
I'm rushing too much
also this copy of ballentine has a lot of typos on some pages
and why do physicists insist on notational differences from mathematicians :(
like which argument of the inner product is linear and antilinear for example
@Obliv Look, the opposite is true. We physicists are extremely fixated on notation that is proven to be least likely to make mistakes. Operators work on the right in the normal sense, and it is the left entity that is getting the conjugation. It thus has to be the left that is antilinear and the right is linear. It is the mathematicians that simply don't care about physics convention.
Does Dirac notation force physical quantities to be real numbers?
I mean, observable physical quantities?
4:27 AM
Why would that be?
'Cause the operators are unitary.
Okay my goal for tomorrow is finish the pre-reqs so I can finally start learning the material.
Meow
M I A O ~
@DannyuNDos You have made a mistake. The eigenvalues of unitary operators are not real.
(Sorry, the cat in my profile picture doesn't belong to Schrödinger.)
4:31 AM
@naturallyInconsistent I guess I mixed up unitary and Hermitian then.
@DannyuNDos And if the operators are not Hermitian, then those observables are not necessarily going to have real numbers as their eigenvalues. Like, what is it that you think Dirac notation is enforcing?
Nevermind. I guess I realize that Dirac notation is just for convenience of notating vectors and covectors. It's operators that enforce anything.
I'd point out that you would not have needed an entire postulate asserting that physical observables come with Hermitian operators if Dirac notation is sufficient on its own.
And I mixed up unitary and Hermitian because I thought the operator would need to be invertible. It really isn't when it involves observation.
Not sure how you made that mistake, but $\hat N=\hat a{}^\dagger\hat a$ and $\hat p_x=-i\hslash\partial_x$ are both examples of physical Hermitian observables that have zero as a possible eigenvalue and thus are not invertible in the matrix sense.
5:18 AM
Yay, miao might be TA-ing some physics lab sections this fall. Probably general physics 1&2, maybe analytical physics lab (I think this one is like 2nd year physics with some calculus sprinkled in)
Also the lab coordinator emailed me at like 12:30 AM so I decided to respond lol. I was going to wait until tomorrow but I guess he's up late..Ok now I slumber.
yay
sneeepppuuu
 
2 hours later…
7:13 AM
hi
7:25 AM
@ACuriousMind do you know of examples in quantum mechanics other than perhaps aharnov bohm where properties of the base manifold manifests in some physically interesting consequence? and also of a discussion of how $L^2(M)$ depends on the properties of $M$?
@SillyGoose The spectrum of the position and momentum operators (if you even know what it should be) changes depending on $M$. Famously, the spectrum of the momentum operator on the circle $S^1$ is discrete, which is why you have Fourier series for periodic functions instead of the continuous Fourier transform
I don't know what you mean by "how $L^2(M)$ depends on the properties of $M$". $L^2(M)$ is a separable Hilbert space, and all such spaces are non-canonically isomorphic. What properties do you think $L^2(M)$ has that can change?
naively, if i puncture a hole in $\mathbb{R}^1$ at $x = 1$, then I shouldn't be able to have access to $\delta(1 - x)$. if we are to naively use such delta functions and relate them to quantum states or write quantum states in terms of them, then this seems to be changing property of the state space
also i was thinking that properties of linear operators over $L^2(M)$ are in a sense due to properties of $L^2(M)$ itself. but maybe this is a wrong line of thought.
I mean really I think I am interested in the following. Observation: Classical Chern-Simons theory is an example in which the base manifold plays an essential role in determining the "state space" (set of on-shell connections). Question: Is there an example in particle mechanics in which the base manifold plays an essential role in determining the state space. In particular, is there such an example in quantum mechanics.
@SillyGoose And I already gave the answer: The state space (naively in canonical quantization) is $L^2(M)$, so yes, the state space is determined by $M$. What more do you want?
well what you said above suggests that $L^2(M)$ doesn't have properties to change
I mean I said that no Hilbert space really has "properties"
because they're all isomorphic
so the question is really what you mean at all by the quantum state space "changing"
and I also gave already the more meaningful answer that the spectrum of your observables may be different depending on $M$, which isn't a property of the Hilbert space in the strict sense, but nevertheless is what we care about in physics
7:41 AM
i think in asking my question i am trying to map the field theory framework into the particle mechanics framework and i think there is not an exact analogy
well I guess I don't know what it can mean for the spectrum of observables to change depending on $M$.
@SillyGoose I already gave the example of the circle and the momentum operator, which part is unclear?
well there seems to be more than one way that a spectrum of an operator can change. some include removing/changing eigenstates and others do not. so it is unclear what happens to the eigenstates in general
7:55 AM
separately, are there analogous aharnov-bohm effects for the strong/weak interactions? there is the canonical electromagnetic and the gravitational.
perhaps Wu & Yang work out the theory for potential analogous aharnov-bohm effects here and some experimental realization can be found here
@SillyGoose I don't know what you mean by "removing" eigenstates
For two arbitrary $L^2(M)$ and $L^2(N)$, you have no embedding of one into the other and thus cannot really compare the states themselves
you can compare the spectra of two operators since they are subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ in both cases
hm i see
@SillyGoose There are certainly topological effects, but there isn't really one like the Aharonov-Bohm effect since there is no such thing as a "classical background strong field"
the AB effect has a background electric field
but there are no classical strong or weak fields - even if you can write down their naive classical theory, they clearly do not describe our world, we do not see classical strong or weak fields anywhere in nature
the stuff you linked uses exotic systems where you get a kind of non-Abelian gauge symmetry from electric and magnetic fields, it has nothing to do with the strong or weak interaction
8:12 AM
@ACuriousMind to experimentally describe an electron restricted to a circular pipe, do we model it using QM with circular position topology, or using QM in $R^3$ with the pipe being a potential?
The particle on the ring is a popular and common QM exercise.
Or maybe it can be modelled as both, but they have different experimental accuracies?
@ACuriousMind yes, but I've never seen a comparison of these two models
The electron has interactions with the pipe, so i think we should model it as a potential
you don't model the interaction of the electron with the walls of the double slit, either
it's just a needless complication that's not relevant in any case I know of
oh
this means non trivial topological space theories r physically useful too
thanks
i knew this becuz the quantum rotor already has circular position
But it's nice to know that we can replace pipes and barriers with topologies
@ACuriousMind I think I am looking for an analogous statement for quantum mechanics to the following statement (even if perhaps not true, I mean the spirit of the following statement). In abelian classical Chern-Simons theory, the set of on-shell connections is precisely the first de Rham cohomology class of the base manifold.
8:22 AM
@SillyGoose There will be no analogous statement because - if we look at QM through a QFT lense - the base manifold is always $\mathbb{R}$, i.e. time.
the $M$ above plays the role of the target space of a $\sigma$-model (with the positions being the fields), not of the base manifold of a QFT
blebs
well let's suppose that I want to allow punctured $\mathbb{R}$ base manifolds for time.
and what physical situation will be modeled by that?
if you puncture $\mathbb{R}$, what you get are two disjoint copies of it
well I don't see why for a system with non-reversible dynamics I can't just treat the section of the time manifold that has passed in whatever way
what happens when time evolution runs into the gap? This makes no physical sense, all frameworks I know always consider a connected spacetime
@SillyGoose When you model a physical system, you are not starting at a particular time - the "time that has passed" only makes sense along a particular trajectory of the system, not for its state space
what about for a scattering event in which you only really suppose you know the state far before and far after. is there maybe some wiggle room in between to treat time strangely?
alternatively, is the assumption for a "universal" time well-motivated?
8:34 AM
in the big bang model, for e.g., time has a beginning
but idk how punctured time could be justified
@ACuriousMind i had in mind the following. 1) initialize initial state $\lvert \psi \rangle$. 2) set initial time $t_0 = 0$. 3) free evolution for $\delta t$. 4) suppose $\mathbb{R}$ is now punctured somewhere in $[0, \delta t)$. 5) perhaps now the state space is changed (becase we have changed the topology of the base manifold). hence, perhaps the future dynamics are affected.
but puncturing in the interval of passed time is not inconsistent with anything (to my understanding).
@SillyGoose Scattering theory also rests on the assumption that time is $\mathbb{R}$, with an asymptotic future and past
@SillyGoose But what kind of physical operation is this "puncture"?
again, the definition of the spacetime is something you do before looking at specific states
since by definition the trajectory in time is a function $\mathbb{R}\to S$ for whatever state space $S$ we have
There simply, in our standard models of classical or quantum mechanics, is no such thing as saying that the underlying (space)time changes during time evolution
note that this doesn't even make conceptual sense: What does it mean that time changed "after" some time $\delta t$? How can time change after some time? How could we go back to "before" (and we should always in principle be able to run in reverse) if time itself has changed?
well i was thinking that puncturing a hole in time could be a way of modeling time-irreversibility within subsets of time or something like this. at least in this sense it is related to something conceptual
but i think there is a problem with having "time depend on time"
"time-irreversibility" is a concept entirely disjoint from what we're discussing here
but i mean it's not really different than how we operationally talk about "wave function collapse"
our rule to update a state post-measurement depends on the pre-measurement state
8:48 AM
how r u defining time irreversibility here? i think time irreversibility means "non time symmetric dynamics"
so can our rule to update the time manifold depend on the original manifold
time-irreversibility just means the dynamics are not symmetric under time reversal, not that time itself is different
oh
well this is like as time-irreversible as one can get I would think: the past is no longer even accessible
but yeah, there is a broader meaning in terms of wave function collapse which is also considered time irreversible
@SillyGoose that's not what anyone thinks happens in reality
8:49 AM
well I guess I don't get why someone would think that time is literally reversible
it's just how all our physical theories work
i mean maybe it makes things easier
but i don't see why it is justified
the whole point of the e.o.m. being an initial value problem is that we can choose any point in time at all for the initial data and then we predict the physics for all time
@SillyGoose It has worked in 100% of cases so far
pretty good justification if you ask me :P
well in any case I am not proposing a modification to all physical theory. i just mean to explore what could be the case if one allows this small change
only wavefunction collapse is irreversible
@SillyGoose i think ur idea is not clearly defined yet
are u saying that, once we reach some moment in the universe, the manifold of spacetime changes to have a puncture in the past?
"moments" are already not a well defined thing because of the relativity of simultaneity
8:54 AM
@SillyGoose it is not a small change
you are trying to change a fundamental assumption of all of mechanics, namely that time is connected (and almost always $\mathbb{R}$)
I think you really underestimate how fundamental this change is, and how ill-defined it is to just say it in one sentence without any other concurrent changes to our mechanics
and again: What is the physical system that is supposed to me modeled by this? For which cases is time being $\mathbb{R}$ insufficient?
instead of adding a puncture in the past (where "the past" is not well defined in relativity), u can instead explore theories which always have a puncture
i personally find CTC theories interesting. Punctures can be cool too
but the manifold shouldn't change in an ad hoc way...
it should always have a pre defined topology
again, "puncturing" time just makes the time manifold disconnected
but we always assume connected (space)time manifolds, since what would happen in one part of a disconnected spacetime could not possibly influence anything in the other part via standard accepted physics
@ACuriousMind would you say spacetimes with black hole singularities are similar to SillyGoose's idea?
Not at all
You might want to define "connected" rigorously tho. In topology terms, "connected" means absence of proper nonempty clopen subsets.
9:00 AM
@DannyuNDos I am using the proper mathematical definition.
I mean, If you puncture one hole in a two-dimensional plane, the remaining space is still connected. It loses simple connectivity, tho.
let's say we take SR in 2D and remove a point. Does this make for a valid "thought-experiment-theory"?
@DannyuNDos The point is that time is the 1-dimensional manifold $\mathbb{R}$
In the above, the spacetime is still connected... So it's not uninteresting
9:04 AM
@ACuriousMind i mean small as in directly changing very few things (namely, just one thing). but i agree possibly very consequential
but i think the point is that it is a fundamental change and that it is very consequential and i see no reason not to be able to do it (in that i cannot justify why one shouldn't do it)
if you poke a hole into a higher-dimensional spacetime, it remains connected, but you haven't really "punctured time" - you still have time-like curves that go from every point to every point (that are time-like separated), they just can't pass through that particular point anymore
@SillyGoose I really don't know what you know by "i see no reason not to be able to do it" - if you read proper analytical mechanics texts (like Arnold), they always assume that time is $\mathbb{R}$ - and Arnold even contains a careful approach where he for a long time only talks about affine spaces etc. before essentially concluding that time has to be $\mathbb{R}$.
i mean naively i see no reason. but if there is genuine justification--like certain important results are changed or invalidated--then i can concede
and I apparently cannot repeat often enough that the physical picture here is entirely unclear: How is anything in "one half" of this punctured time supposed to influence anything in the other half?
@SillyGoose also, again: How is this supposed to work? How does time evolution work here? What happens when $x(t)$ runs into the gap? You can't just say "let's have a hole in time" and then act as if the burden of proof is on the people who say it doesn't work
the burden is on you to actually present this as a well-defined theory that one can analyze
9:14 AM
ok so if we don't puncture time, but just remove a point in higher dimensional spacetime, then the Hilbert space of states and the spectrum of observables becomes time dependent, right?
like the spectrum of position is time dependent now
but Hilbert spaces r still isomorphic in the math sense
If you just remove a random point from a well behaved spacetime you're gonna get a big singularity
and then you will have Troubles
@Slereah yes. Do differential eqns no longer work?
Time evolution will fail to be unitary
yeah..
unless you specify it by hand
Which is basically just saying what happens at the singularity
9:16 AM
so it is still an ugly thought experiment theory
I mean what are you aiming for
beauty.. :
not off to a good start
i find CTCs much more aesthetic, but unitarity should be weird again
Thinking circles to be beautiful is the classic aristotelian trap
It doesn't work that well
9:20 AM
QM postulates require the most boring time imaginable...
I saw this movie called Mirage where a storm at two different points of time connects a room at the two different times
so the future room can make changes to the past room
and the changes also get reflected in the future world
So it's like a feedback loop
Highly recommended
It's a SciFi+psychology+romance+thriller movie
this was an interesting discussion to read. Puncturing time is something I've never thought of. And now I wanna read Arnold as well :P
@Slereah could you explain in very simple terms why we lose unitarity?
I know nothing of GR lol
@Claudio What happens to a particle if it goes in the hole
Are we talking about $\mathcal{U}(t) = \exp\left(\frac{-iHt}{\hbar}\right)$
@Slereah oh I see
there's no t to plug in lol
wait then we don't only loose unitarity, the operator itself is not well defined
9:35 AM
More importantly, if your particle disappears in the singularity, it goes from having a probability of 100% of being somewhere to 0%
or something in between because QM
If probabilities aren't conserved then there is a break of unitarity
Oh yep I get that as well
9:46 AM
@ACuriousMind This need to get starred for future physicists to see ngl
no wait maybe not. It lacks a bit of context imo. Dang, we missed a great opportunity
anyways, I found an interesting article. I don't know if it's famous but just the premise is really funny: arxiv.org/abs/physics/0110060v3
"This startup is building the country’s most powerful quantum computer on Chicago’s South Side"
That's some very specific qualifier
Not even the biggest quantum computer in Chicago
is it just a qbit? :P
Only half, it can just have one state
Biggest quantum computer on the southern side of chicago next to the bakery near the bus station
i would say the loss of unitarity is not that severe. It's just two disconnected universes like ACuriousMind said
QM can work with connected sub-intervals of $R$ as time
@RyderRude this does seem severe to me :P
lol
9:58 AM
@Claudio it's just uninteresting...
@RyderRude connected?
Unitarity would be harder to patch in a circular time @Claudio
@Claudio yes, like QM on [0,1] as time
It's just that time evolution is only defined on [0,1]
I was thinking how do you connect something on a line like $$[a,b[ \text{ and } ]b,c] $$
It's just uninteresting...nothing mathematically troublesome
@Claudio I'm not getting u...
no, this is not how physics works
you can't just say "after one second there's no time evolution"
10:01 AM
Time as a "1d manifold" as they were saying
like $\mathbb{R}$
would everyone please stop making unwarrantedly confidently assertions about their entirely non-mainstream idea of how time evolution works :P
@ACuriousMind yeah, but this is a "thought experiment universe". One can say that this universe is modelled by a bounded time. I'm not saying it's interestin, but only that it's not troublesome
This is nonsense. The time evolution operator is $\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}Ht}$. You can always plug in the entirety of $\mathbb{R}$ in there
@ACuriousMind sorry
@Claudio I wasn't talking about you
10:04 AM
@ACuriousMind oh my bad I thought I was saying something weird.
@ACuriousMind yeah... Even as a thought experiment, it doesn't make sense to restrict the domain...this is y i say it's uninteresting
it's not "uninteresting" it's nonsense, inconsistent, not thought through at all
let us not pretend that there's a consistent idea of physics in these ideas; we need to be able to call out things that make no physical sense as what they are
yeah.. it is important to call out wrong ideas
 
4 hours later…
1:50 PM
I'm willing to bet that Wacken '25 breaks their sellout record of 4.5 hours.
2:32 PM
@user20458579510081670432 you've lost the bet already - sale started Sunday, 8pm and it's still not sold out
last year there were a lot more "big" bands announced at the start (in particular stuff like the Scorpions, Blind Guardian, Amon Amarth) so there were more people buying the tickets quickly just for one particular band; the lineup they announced this time is a bit more niche
:(
did you get a t-shirt with your ticket :^)
3:06 PM
@ACuriousMind I am specifically considering the case in which such a case could not happen
operationally, i picture the following:
1) start with an initial state $\lvert \psi \rangle \in \mathcal{H}$ at $t_0$.
2) evolve via closed dynamics for a time step $\delta t$, $\lvert \psi \rangle \mapsto U(t_0+\delta t, t_0)$, i.e. solve the Schrödinger equation over $\mathcal{H}$ and over time interval $t \in [t_0, t_0 + \delta t]$.
3) puncture a hole in $[t_0, t_0 + \delta t]$.
4) update the time interval to be $[t_0 + t_0 + \delta t]$ with a puncture unioned with the "next" time interval $[t_0 + \delta t, t_0 + 2\delta t]$.
with the hope to study how puncturing passed time affects the (appropriately adjusted) usual time evolution of a closed quantum system
ah blebs the typos
i mean really the situation i am interested in is perhaps just Schrödinger picture quantum mechanics with a time-dependent Hilbert space
3:44 PM
@SillyGoose and ACM had kept telling you that Steps 3, 4 and 5 make no sense + needs much more fleshing out before it can stop being vague.
 
3 hours later…
6:57 PM
@SillyGoose what do you mean "just"? There is no such thing as a "time-dependent Hilbert space" in ordinary QM
there is, in some sense, in certain approaches to QFT where we talk about a QFT assigning a space of states to each Cauchy surface

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