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1:40 AM
what is conserved in GR?
 
2 hours later…
3:46 AM
@Relativisticcucumber There is a conserved quantity conjugate to every Killing vector field. Yes, you have to resort to murder to get conservation in GR. You can read up the horribleness in ADM and Bondi masses and more.
4:08 AM
@SillyGoose On top of what you and ACM had said, the trivial answer is that when Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is no longer suitable to describe the system, and you explicitly see the Bose-Einstein or Fermi-Dirac statistics, then you absolutely know that the particles are indistinguishable. It is an extremely dramatic change, experimentally.
 
2 hours later…
5:52 AM
@Claudio I've also heard great stuff about it, but boy we had a horrible time with C-T on the H atom
 
1 hour later…
123
123
6:56 AM
Hello Everyone...
7:40 AM
@Claudio If you ask me, it's one of those I dislike the most :P
@Mr.Feynman then, which do you like?
7:58 AM
@naturallyInconsistent I don't have one I love. Some have good stuff but also many downsides
Sakurai-Napolitano Modern QM is one of the best among the most recent ones, if you ask me. Still, it's not a book that I would suggest as a first read, not because it's intrinsically difficult: it is not. I have the impression that the authors tend to overcomplicate things or phrase them in the weirdest possible way
That being said, I think it provides good content overall
S-N has horrid perturbation and scattering sections indeed...
they have a wonderful chapter 2 though
I liked Sakurai
@SillyGoose It's one of the few books having a decent scattering sections in terms of ToC, though
But of the set that argues the same way, Ballentine is what I think is the best.
Unless you go for some more niche books, most QM books are not as detailed
8:02 AM
i think i would use ballentine if i had the freedom to pick to teach a qm course
I kept finding that Sakurai's treatment of perturbation and scattering is pretty comprehensive
for an undergrad qm course at least
For more specific questions, if one is ready to make a compromise and go for something older, L&L 3 is great, you'll find everything there
Although these few days I've been wondering why they don't mention Neumann functions and just Bessel functions :P
@SillyGoose For that I would choose Griffiths with my eyes closed for that. As shallow as it may sound for many reasons, it provides a great resource and style for a undergrad student
oh dear god no
If complemented with decent class notes, it is the way to go imho
8:04 AM
L&L is really not bad, but seriously old notation.
griffiths angular momentum is tragic
@naturallyInconsistent "Compromise" :P
@Mr.Feynman actually, same. Would have very much preferred a Griffiths in bra-ket notation, but it works.
@SillyGoose The point is that in an undergrad course you won't focus much on angular momentum, that is more appropriate for graduate courses, where one can also give some notions of representation theory
i would use ballentine because it is the most precise and clear in setting up the framework of quantum mechanics in sufficient generality. it also contains enough content for an intro. undergrad course, so there is no suffering from the text itself lacking as much content as sakurai has
8:06 AM
Imho an undergrad course should cover the basics and then focus on the few "important! systems like hydrogen, HO and so on. Then all the rest should only be hints
hm but i feel like the algebra is too essential to quantum
@naturallyInconsistent Oh, I agree, introducing bra-ket during the fourth chapter was a bitchy move
the model systems one could really just do in an electromagnetisms course :P
Fortunately, as I read Griffiths I already had the braket plugin in my mind :P
@Mr.Feynman Miao miao thinks the angular momentum stuff should be demoted to undergrad. Just no need to be so early. It is only needed when we need to do molecules.
8:11 AM
hi
how many hours should we study physics everyday
@Mr.Feynman HO is wayyyyyy out. Tooooooo difficult.
@Mr.Feynman sooooo luckyyyy
@naturallyInconsistent Mh? More than hydrogen you say?
I'm talking about 1D HO here
@RyderRude 28
QM courses should focus on foundations too
@Mr.Feynman The standard treatments are 1H atom, H2+ molecular ion, H2, He, and no more. We don't even do the extremely important O2 case even just to discuss why oxygen molecule is so reactive. We don't even treat CO2 or CO.
@Mr.Feynman Oh you mean QHO. QHO is so basic it is done in 1D in the section way before...
I haven't seen anything other than hydrogen
there was some qualitative discussion on other atoms
Like charge screening stuff
this is from shankar's book
8:18 AM
Anyways, my personal idea is that QM is one of those parts of physics where cross-checking various sources is not just recommended, it's compulsory.
@naturallyInconsistent Lmao, did you think I was talking about the molecule? :P
there is also the 3d oscillator which has a rotational invariant potential
@Mr.Feynman starting from myow myow's book, it would be really difficult, because it is using totally non-standard notation. After all, miao miao would be in supremely natural units, so that everything is as clean as it can be. miahahahaha
@Mr.Feynman yes
i think it's called isometric oscillator
@RyderRude as is usual, you cannot get such things correct
its potential is $x2+y2+z2$ times the constants
@naturallyInconsistent I'm just forgetting the name
8:22 AM
If you can progress to forgetting to log in to P.SE, that will be great.
OH THERE'S ACM NOTICE ME SENPAI
it's isotropic actually
it means same in all directions
8:46 AM
@Slereah Slereah, I just came across some new results here which might interest you. They construct new maximally symmetric geometries but after dropping the condition of invariance of metric under kinematic symmetries.
@Mr.Feynman long time no see !!
ok so in stat mech, if o set out to get a moment generating function, i get the partition function. strangely the partition function does not actually generate the desired moments. furthermore, it would seem that actually what we use to get expectation values is the free energy. but if the first three moments are same for cumulant and moment generating function, why resort to cumulant? what is going on with this business
@Relativisticcucumber what do you mean, that "the partition function does not actually generate the desired moments"?
i set out to calculate the moment generating function and got the partition function. but then when i first differentiated that, i did not get a reasonable result for the expectation of the energy
how can that be? When you get the correct partition function, within it, contains the correct answer to most stat therm questions
9:02 AM
okay so first, the partition function i got was $Z = \sum_i e^{-\beta E_i}$
i believe this is correct?
whoops
there we go
then i get $\frac{dZ}{d\beta} \lvert_{\beta = 0} = \langle E \rangle = -\sum_i E_i$
which is clearly nonsense
@Relativisticcucumber Heeeey~
What's up?
@naturallyInconsistent so @SillyGoose is saying the partition function is not actually the MGF
@Relativisticcucumber $dZ/d\beta$ is not average energy
$-\frac{1}{Z}\frac{\partial Z}{\partial\beta}$ is
Also, you don't want to evaluate it at infinite temperature as you did. Energy is a function of temperature
yeah but i started purely with the math view that the moment generating function should be like $M(\beta) = \sum e^{\beta X}f(X)$ and then it says that the first moment is $\frac{dM(X)}{d\beta} \lvert_{\beta = 0}$
so i must set $\beta = 0$ according to this, no?
im thinking maybe @SillyGoose is right that somehow this analogy is not exact. but it seems sus that it looks so much like MGF and cumulant?
@Relativisticcucumber if you perform mathematically invalid swaps, you ought to get invalid results.
In the physical case we have a minus sign. You did not even take that into account.
It is perfectly valid to see this as a MGF, just that you have to redefine the mathematical MGF to have the minus sign instead.
9:19 AM
@Sanjana Okay, so maybe trying to figure this out while still hungover and tired yesterday wasn't the best of my work ;)
$\mathcal{J}^\mu(\epsilon) = J^\mu(\epsilon) + E_\alpha Y^{\alpha,\mu} \epsilon$
at constant $\epsilon$ : $\mathcal{J}^\mu = (J^\mu + E_\alpha Y^{\alpha,\mu})\epsilon$
and so $\mathcal{Q}(\epsilon) = \epsilon \int_V (J^\mu + E_\alpha Y^{\alpha,\mu})\mathrm{d}V$
and with (14): $\mathcal{Q}(\epsilon) = \epsilon\int_V\mathrm{d}_\mu J^{\mu,\nu}\mathrm{d}V = 0$, if $J^{\mu,\nu}$ vanishes on $\partial V$.
Now, think about what the $J^{\mu,\nu} = \pi^\mu_\alpha Y^{\alpha,\nu}$ are: They are the coefficients for the field transformations where the field transforms non-trivially with the derivative
@Sanjana hi. did u see Deadpool and Wolverine?
@Relativisticcucumber That is correct. The analogy is not meant to be exact. We are not interested in them that way.
welcome back father @ACuriousMind
9:39 AM
@ACuriousMind Hungover or "hungover"
what went on at this festival
Now, actually, there is a bad typo after eq. (24): The assumption must be that the superpotential $\mathcal{K}$ vanishes at the boundary, not that $\mathcal{J}$ vanishes, and then the problem becomes clear: The assumption that $\mathcal{K}$ vanishes is the assumption that $F$ vanishes, but the assumption that the net electric field vanishes is the assumption that there is no electric charge inside!
@Slereah just lots of beer and some weed, metal's drug of choice is firmly alcohol (and weed in some subgenres)
Currently replaying Disco Elysium, speaking of
@Relativisticcucumber looks like he actually bought milk
Doing the cheat run
It is exhausting
I am way too successful at everything
also, you have all the voices in your head :P
9:45 AM
Doing all nighters every night just to keep up with all my amazing detective work
@Relativisticcucumber I'm glad that you're old enough that I can take a week off without worrying too much :P
@ACuriousMind miao miao is noisy just by myowself
@ACuriousMind I wouldn't speak those words before getting home
Hm?
I am home
Party pooper
:(
10:18 AM
While constructings irreps of Virasoro algebra, by laddering down with $P_\mu$ If I have a descendant which is also a primary i.e. a null state in a Verma module, we can mod it out to get irreps. But after modding it out, it gives rise to a subrepresentation where it is the primary. Now primaries are normalized to 1. But this primary of the subrep. was also a descendant of the original construction. It was a null state. So it is normalized to 0. How can a state be normalized both to 0 and 1?
 
2 hours later…
12:31 PM
Would anybody be interested in adding an RSS feed from the NASA picture of the day to this chatroom?
 
2 hours later…
2:06 PM
does anyone know of a resource which might inform an answer to my question on encoding information about the base manifold in the position operator in textbook quantum mechanics
2:24 PM
@SillyGoose I left a comment, if you feel like this will become an extended discussion, better respond here
lol, he's gonna love that comment
@SillyGoose i dont have an answer, but one relevant thing is that measurements are always local operators, but topology is a global property
But regardless of that, ur question is meaningful because global operators do exist in QFT
I just noticed how you were immensely missed in here, glad you're back @ACuriousMind :P
If we take non rel QM, then the global position operator is $\int \psi ^{\dagger} (x)\psi (x) d^3x$
So if we integrate over the whole spacetime, then i dont see y the above operator doesn't work for non trivial topologies @SillyGoose
@RyderRude the question is not about QFT, please do not confuse the discussion any further
the Hamiltonian as written is clearly an ordinary non-rel QM Hamiltonian with an external background field
2:32 PM
Oh
in that case, we would have to work with the phase space theory with position having non trivial topology
and then we will quantise it
an example can be the quantisation of angle-angular momentum phase space
this has a cyclic topology
what on earth is "phase space theory", if you don't know what's going on, you can just say nothing
i have given an example..
Usually, there is a radial co ordinate too... but it's absent in the quantum rotor
again, the question is clearly taking a "naive" approach where we just assume that we can do a position space treatment where we replace $L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ by $L^2(M)$, otherwise the Hamiltonian that's been written does not make any sense (as $\mathcal{A}$ is a function of $M$)
just going off on all sorts of related issues before we have clarified what the question is actually trying to ask is not useful
2:57 PM
I'm reading about Gauge Transformations in Cohen-T. I was trying to see what happens to the Lagrangian of point-like particle of charge $q$ when we make the following transform to the scalar potential $U$ and vector potential $\mathbf{A}$: $$U'(\mathbf{r},t) = U(\mathbf{r},t)-\partial_t\chi(\mathbf{r},t) , \mathbf{A}' = \mathbf{A}+\nabla \chi(\mathbf{r},t)$$ and I've found out that it changes by a total derivative $\frac{d}{dt} \chi$.
I was wondering, since the result seems to be correct, what is this result telling me? Is there something crucial I should be aware of?
it's telling you this is a symmetry
or what some like to call quasi-symmetry - changing the Lagrangian by a total time derivative changes the action only by boundary terms, so the action is invariant
symmetry as in a conserved quantity?
no, symmetry as in this is a transformation that leaves the action invariant
shouldn't the action change by a constant factor
Oh I see it
the point is that it doesn't change the equations of motion, really - the boundary terms have no effect on the e.o.m.
3:01 PM
basically it does not affect the eom
you were faster
just to be sure, if the Hamilton eom's are invariant, this means that the Hamiltonian is invariant too?
you may apply Noether's first theorem to the global part of this symmetry to get a conserved quantity
Yep, my analytical mechanics course was not this advanced unfortunately
@Claudio no, the e.o.m. can be invariant under transformations that the Hamiltonian or action are not invariant under
but a quasi-symmetry of the action/Lagrangian/Hamiltonian (i.e. up to a total derivative) will be a symmetry of the e.o.m.
the implication only goes one way
3:06 PM
Oh I see, I'm sorry if I sound naive but this is the first time I'm doing these kind of things more seriously. My course was just about computations and it was basically a joke due to the professor being awful
dang I feel stupid
Thanks :P
probably not your fault, I rant regularly in here about courses doing QM and gauge theory etc. without having done enough classical mechanics for the students to really appreciate which parts are quantum
You don't get how bad the situation is: 6 months of classical mechanics: nobody understands much: you just try to do as many exercises as possible
then the oral part of the exam comes
and you can imagine what happens when people haven't got a clear idea of whatever happened during the lessons
but they still let many people pass because the course is flawed from the beginning and most professors are very compassionate
Rant finished, again what do I know, I'm just a mere student
yeah, that sucks
 
2 hours later…
4:50 PM
Can there be more than one fixed vector satisfying riesz theorem?
what do you mean?
It guarantees the existence of a vector $u \in V$ but there can be more right?
or no because then they'd be the same vector I guess
it says "unique"
I don't know what you're asking :P
Oh so there is only one
for a vector space over the real numbers, we have $\varphi(v) = \langle v,u\rangle = \langle u,v\rangle$ right
4:58 PM
is there an implicit part of this theorem that guarantees a one-to-one correspondence of linear functionals to vectors through the conjugate
so $\varphi(v)^* = \langle u,v\rangle$ or something
I don't understand what you're asking - if you apply the conjugate to both sides of the equation in your picture, that's exactly what you get
where's the confusion coming from?
I'm more just trying to get a feel for what the theorem is doing. It's connecting each functional in the dual to a vector in $V$ by the inner product with some unique $u \in V$
does this vector $u$ have a special name?
have you read to the end of the chapter where this is derived? :P
No.. I'll go do that :P
usually books don't randomly prove theorems and then don't do anything with them
so the best way to get a feel for what a theorem is doing is to see how the book will use it
5:02 PM
well I saw it in ballentine's math prereqs but it isn't really discussed that much (they just go straight into bra-ket notation and operators)
found it in axler though thats where the screencap is from
ill read the chapter in axler
well, this shows that bra-ket notation works, i.e. that to every $\langle \phi\rvert$ (i.e. an element in the dual, the $\phi$ from your picture) there is a corresponding $\lvert \phi\rangle$ (the $u$ from your picture)
being a math book that will probably not be discussed in Axler
6:04 PM
I have a question about Perturbation theory.
When considering non-degenerate case, we have:
$E_n=E_n^{(0)} + E_n^{(1)}+...$ where
$E_n$ is the perturbed energy eigenvalue, $E_n^{(0)}$ is the unperturbed eigenvalue while $E_n^{(1)}$ is the energy correction of first order.
When we consider degeneracy, then we have for a $g_n$ degenerate eigenvalue $E_n^{(0)}$:

E_{n,l}=$E_n^{(0)}+E_{n,l}^{(1)}$ where $l=1,....g_n$.
What does one call E_{n,l} ?
6:15 PM
why would you not also call it "perturbed energy eigenvalue"?
Because a distinction between i.e E_{n,l} and E_{n,l+1} should be made
you call them both perturbed energy eigenvalues?
why wouldn't I? They are both energy eigenvalues of the perturbed Hamiltonian, aren't they?
They are
but they both are the result of a degenerate unperturbed energy eigenvalue
the phrase "perturbed energy eigenvalue" doesn't make a distinction between $E_n$ and $E_{n+1}$, either, why does it bother you for the second index but not the first?
The distinction is already present there, because you are considering n and n+1
while in the degenerate case, you have the same n but different l
6:17 PM
I have no idea what you mean
if I were to ask you, what is the l index and why it's different between two degenerate eigenvalues with the same n, what would you say?
I would say that I don't understand that question, either
There's not much to understand really. Asking what the index $l$ represent for a fixed n, should be an easy answer
you've already written down that the index runs from 1 to $g_n$
Giving a very simplistic example
The system is perturbed and we have:
$E_1$,$E_2$,$E_3$,$E_{4,1}$,$E_{4,2}$,$E_5$...
And one naturally asks, what do you call $E_{4,1}$,$E_{4,2}$?
Both are : The forth perturbed energy eigenvalues ?
6:24 PM
they're two perturbed eigenvalues, namely the two you get from perturbing the unperturbed 2-fold degenerate $E_4$
I don't see the need for any special kind of phrase here
I was thinking something along the lines of first and second perturbed energy eigenvalues of the corresponding degenerate unperturbed one, but what you say also works
One thing is unclear in how we operate to get the eigenvectors
how often do you have to talk about these things in natural language instead of writing down or saying $E_{n.l}$, anyway? :P
Yeah, you mostly write
but what if it happens that you need to speak about PT, in a presentaiton
what are you going to say? Read the symbol ?
I, simply like to have a proper articulation of what is written down
I don't think that's a bad thing to know
I don't think there's anything wrong with "the l-th eigenvalue we get from perturbing the n-th unperturbed eigenvalue"
Yeah I like this way of expressing myself
One more thing, which confuses me
This is a question regarding the eigenvectors.
In non-degenerate PT one writes : $|n\rangle=|n\rangle_0+|n\rangle_1$ and there's a formula as to how you find the first order correction, which I know but will not type here
In the degenerate case I am confused as to what we do because:
In the eigenraum of the degenerate eigenvalue you would diagonalize the perturbation operator, find the eigenvalues and the corresponding eigenvectors. The eigenvectors can, if I stand correct, be expressed as a linear combination of the basis kets of the eigenraum. This is as far as I go.
Now, in the Hilbert space of system, one, substitutes, the unperturebed eigenvectors of the degenerate eigenvalue, with the eigenvectors of the perturbed operator in the eigenraum of the eigenvalue. But what can you say about the perturbed eig
Basically what was said in the lecture was: Neue Eigenzustaende 0. Ordnung aus den Eigenvectoren
6:36 PM
there is a similar formula for the state correction in degenerate perturbation, which is written e.g. on Wiki (at the end of the paragraph, under "state correction to the first order")
I saw that but I didn't get it
But I do now
In the wiki it is said that $\psi_{nk}$ are such that the perturbation V, is diagonal
if you saw the formula on Wiki, why ask so open-ended whether there is any formula instead of asking specifically about what you don't understand about the formula on Wiki???
Well because, in the wiki a couple of assumptions are made
you complain about vagueness in your lecture notes or somewhere else all the time and then you remain so vague in your questions yourself...
In fact I am as general as I can be, so one, can then trickle down the end part
I made no assumptions, like the wiki did
i.e $\psi_{nk}$ are such that the perturbation V, is diagonal
6:39 PM
damn ACM, you are a meanie now :(
@imbAF the problem is that you often have misunderstood in the past whether something is an "assumption" or not, so often your generalizations are not very helpful to getting to your underlying confusion
That's why I started, with the initial question, whether the eigenstates of the perturbation in the eigenraum , are expressed as a lin. combination of the eigenvectors of the degenerate eigenvalue
and yes, the Wiki formula is specific to degeneracy lifted to first order and the perturbation operator being diagonalizable in the degenerate subspace
Well, if I would have been better in physics and would have more of a vocabulary, I could be concise in what I want
Unfortunately that's not the case
@ACuriousMind which means, that for the 0.th order he is using the eigenstates of V in the eigenraum of the degenerate eigenvalue
which can be expressed as a lin. combination of the unperturbed eigenstates of the degenerate unperturbed eigenvector
that we are dealing with
Would this be an accurate description of what is going on @ACuriousMind ?
6:44 PM
And was the way I described what happens convoluted ?
Or over-detailed, unnecessarily ?
I mean I'm not really sure what the second sentence here does: By virtue of being in the eigenspace, the eigenstates of V simply are unperturbed eigenstates of the degenerate unperturbed Hamiltonian
sure, something that is an X is also a linear combination of X, but I don't really know why you're stating this in this way
we're simply choosing a basis for the degeneracy subspace, which is the basis in which $V$ is (by assumption) diagonal
and by the way, this same diagonalizability assumption is also there in your energy computation with the $E_{n.l}$, so the Wiki article makes no additional assumption over what your perturbation scheme is already making
@ACuriousMind what do you mean with this?
@imbAF You said: "the eigenstates of V [...] can be expressed as a lin. combination of the unperturbed eigenstates of the degenerate unperturbed eigenvector [you meant Hamiltonian I assume]"
But the eigenstates of $V$ are elements of the degenerate eigenspace already, they are eigenstates of the degenerate unperturbed Hamiltonian
they don't need to be expressed as a "linear combination"
@ACuriousMind I meant Hamiltonian, yes, mistake
@ACuriousMind Right
so my point was: what you said was not technically wrong but I don't really know why you thought it significant to say it that way
6:55 PM
Yeah, I can omit that part, about the linearity, since the eigenvectors of V are in the eigenraum of the degenerated eigenvalue
7:37 PM
What is the difference between a system that can be considered a composition of sub-systems and as a consequence the Hilbert space of the system is a tensor product of the Hilbert spaces of the sub-systems, and a system that is an entanglement of sub-systems?
@imbAF What do you mean by "a system that is an entanglement of sub-systems"? Entanglement is a property of states, not of systems.
I think it would be more accurate to ask, about a system in which a state is a tensor product and in one where it is a entangled state
Basically in which cases a system can be considered as composed of several sub-systems
that is my question
you can't even talk about a state being a tensor product or entangled unless a system is composed of two or more subsystems
I'm not really sure what the question is
So every time a system is composed of sub-systems, it's state/Hilbert space is a tensor product ?
what else is the definition of a system being composed of subsystem if not that its Hilbert space is the tensor product of the Hilbert spaces of those subsystems?
7:45 PM
I ask this because
I don't know what this is: uncoupled tensor product basis
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clebsch%E2%80%93Gordan_coefficients
I know what a tensor product is, a tensor basis as well
but a coupled or uncoupled one
I don't know what that means
see this is another case of premature generalization on your side: The terminology is specific to CG coefficients (or slightly more generally decomposition of tensor products into irreducible representations of some group), it's not a general thing that would occur just because a system has subsystems
It occurs when there's angular momentum addition ?
The "uncoupled" basis is the usual basis $\lvert j_1 m_1\rangle \otimes \lvert j_2 m_2\rangle$ for the tensor product $H_1\otimes H_2$ in terms of bases $\lvert j_i m_i\rangle$ of the subsystem spaces $H_i$.
The "coupled" basis is not in the form of tensor products, but it is just eigenvectors $\lvert J M \rangle$ of the total angular momentum operators
ahaa
it's called "coupled" because the angular momenta of the subsystems here have "coupled" into a definite total angular momentum of the whole system
7:50 PM
so the coupled basis considers angular momentum addition ?
@ACuriousMind I see.
Thanks for the clarification
not the best, not the worst terminology in the world :P
It's quite good
I don't see a reason why it wouldn't be classified as a good terminology
I just find the word a bit weird but don't worry about it
And can the CGC be used for more than 2 angular momenta in consideration?
sure, you can iterate the process (first apply them to 2 of the N angular momenta, then to the result of that and one more, etc.), the result for 3 momenta is called the Wigner 6-j symbol or Racah W coefficients
7:55 PM
I suspected that that would be the case, but I wasn't sure, and definitely didn't know about Wigner 6-j symbol
thanks
you usually don't want to do any of the computations for more than 2 momenta by hand, these things get messy quite fast :P
I see
8:17 PM
@ACuriousMind Would it be wrong to draw similarity (to a degree) between the attempt of expressing the coupled basis kets of the total angular momentum as a linear combination of the uncoupled tensor product kets, with the classic expression :

$|\psi\rangle=\sum_n |n\eangle\langle n|\psi\rangle$ ?
I mean, both times you're just expressing one state (or set of states) in a different basis, so sure, that's similar
8:42 PM
I have one more question about the following calculation that I did on my own. I want to know if it is correct:

Uncoupled basis: $|\psi\rangle=\sum_{j_1,j_2,m_1,m_2}c_{j_1,j_2,m_1,m_2}|j_1,j_2;m_1,m_2\rangle$

coupled basis: $|\psi\rangle = \sum_{j,m}d_{j,m}|j,m\rangle$

If I muultiply both equations with $\lange j,m|$ I get:

$d_{j,m}=\sum_{j_1,j_2,m_1,m_2} c_{j_1,j_2,m_1,m_2}\langle j,m|j_1,j_2;m_1,m_2\rangle$
Previeously we were discussing and considering how the basis kets of one of the two basis is expressed in the other one. While with what I wrote above, I am considering an arbitrary state $|\psi\rangle$ which may not necessarily be a basis ket

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