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00:10
i wonder if this arxiv.org/pdf/hep-th/0605153 yields a description of the harmonic oscillator in projective space...
01:06
is there a nice way to think of flows in category theory? like you have a category Diff which has objects manifolds and morphisms smooth maps, and isomorphisms are diffeomorphisms. A flow is a ... particular? family of these diffeomorphisms?
 
1 hour later…
02:21
does anyone know if this theorem has a name?
 
4 hours later…
05:58
Anyone have recommendations on relaxing music
something to reduce the agony while grading
06:24
might miao miao suggest happy music? comedic?
06:36
@SirCumference Try Rembetiko music it is oddly relaxing to me lol,I suggest to start from cafeAmanIstanbul Ytube channnel
07:02
@naturallyInconsistent if you know some good ones
@Arjun that's pretty nice
07:22
@SirCumference maybe this? rainy jazz youtube.com/watch?v=c0_ejQQcrwI
@SirCumference glad you liked it : )
 
2 hours later…
09:41
@Slereah to solve for GR solutions, does one have to fix a topology first, or are there formulations in which that is not required?
@SillyGoose I think we should dub it Geoffrey
10:04
sup
@RyderRude I want to get a better grasp of lagrangian mech
@Kenshin oh
Here is what I know, L = pv - H
where H is hamiltonian
and least action principle fixes (x0,t0) and (xf,tf)
and finds path that makes int L dt stationary
I also understand that this leads essentially to dp/dt = -dV/dx
i.e. Newton's law
But I'd like to get a better intuitive feel for it
E.g. if we look at L = pv - H
then look at int L dt = int (pv) dt - int (H) dt
now for intuitive understanding let's assume H is conserved such that the last integral becomes a constant
then we get int L dt = int (pv)dt = int(p dx)
so it seems like lagrangian can be thought of a combination of (a) conservation of energy + (b) path that minimizes int(p dx) right?
energy is only conserved on the actual path. when we vary the paths, the energy can vary
yep, but I'm trying ot understand what lagrangian mechanics is saying about the actual path
the actual path will be a combination of the path that (a) keeps energy constant, and something else, because (a) isn't sufficient to define the motion
so if I assume (a)
what's left
and it looks like the bit that's left is int (p dx) right
there is some other formulation of mechanics in which energy is kept constant or something
and we vary the paths
it is similar to Lagrangian mech
Veritasium mentioned it in his video
10:11
mauritius principle
I believe mauritus principle is essentially the prinicple of making int(pdx) stationary
in the usual Lagrangian mech, the time interval is kept constant
and we vary the paths
in think in the other one, time interval is allowed to change and we keep energy fixed
@Kenshin and then maybe it comes down to the minimisation of this
yep so now I wonder what does int (p dx) mean intuitvely
i will have to re-watch the video to confirm
10:14
I wonder if we can re-write int (pdx) in another way
I guess int(pdx) = p(f)x(f) - p(i)-x(i) - int(xdp)
if for now we assume that p is also known at the boundary
*which it isn't in traditional lagrangian
then finding stationary int(pdx) is equiv to finding stationary int(xdp) in phase space
i don't have intuition for this quantity...
it does show up in QM tho
ok if we think intuitively though
intuitifvely I think we have a good feel for energy conservation
if we take a simple 1D case
let's say throwing a ball up in the air
starting as position 0, time 0 ending at position 0, time 1
there's really only one path that would keep energy constant and meet those constraints
0.5mv(t)^2 + mgx(t) = 0.5mv(0)^2
i.e. KE(t) + PE(t) = KE(0) (since potential energy is 0 at time 0 since position is 0 at t=0)
0.5v^2 + gx = constant
but u r fixing the time interval here
10:21
that's right
as you do in least action principle
when we want to use Mauritius principle, time is allowed to vary
ok let's start with least action principle
in this simple 1D case
we then get
v^2 = 2*constant/gx
so waht that means is, once you solve for the constant required to get from 0 to 0 in 1s, you know v(t)
i.e.
v(t) = sqrt(2*constant/gx)
but I think the fact the sqrt introduces a +-
is why energy doesn't fully describe the motion
because that +- means the particule could move up and down this constant potential curve
if u fix t=1s for the journey, v=u-gt/2. u can get 'u' from here
e.g. your particles intial velocity could be the speed of light
u could be the speed of light
if the particle zig zags back and forth enough times along the constant potential trajectory
it can still then go from 0 to 0 in 1 second
if it changes direction back and forth enough
oooh
but we introducing other forces now
10:25
so that's why intuitively I feel like there's two principles at play (a) conservation of energy and (b) some principel that stops the zig zag back and forth
force isn't a concept in lagrangian mech
lagrangian is an alternative way of looking at things
but essentially from a NEwtonian point of view you're correct
that's why it won't zig zag
yes, but if u only have a gravitational potential in the Lagrangian, zig zag isn't allowed
but ffrom a lagrangian point of view it won't zig zag because of a minimziation principle
zig zag is allowed as a possible path
it's just not the least action path
yes, as a possible path
but anything is allowed as a possible path
right
so what I'm saying is there are two principles that lead to the optimal path
principle 1 is conservation of energy
but even 1 isn't enough
you need principle 1 + some other principle that minimzes zig zag
and I guess that other principle is the int (pdx)
this is true in Mauritius principle
10:28
so I'm breaking down what least action is doing
it's doing two things essentially
in Hamilton's principle, u don't need energy conservation a priori
I understand that
my line of thinking is, in lagrangian you just go from L + least action = correct path
but i'm saying there are a few hidden steps as part of that process
one of the hidden steps is that the least action is finding hte path of constant energy
the additional assumption there is fixed time interval
and the second hidden step is that the least action is then minimzing somethin gelse subject to constant energy
My goal is to be able to fully see what the lagrangian is doing when least action is occuring and know intuitively why it leads to newton's laws essentially
and if I express L = pv - H
then I can see the H will disappear from the minimization
so that's the energy conservation bit
and the int pvdt is the other bit
where int pvdt = int pdx
so now I just need to understand why int pdx stops the zig zagging if you will
oh
so, among the conserved energy paths, why is the actual path a minimisation of this thing
10:31
yeah
and it seems like it's because the universe is trying to do two things, the universe is selecting a path that conserves energy, and also a path that minizes int pdx
now intuitively I would have thought that once the universe chooses a path that conserves energy, it will then try to do the rest in the shortest time
so it would be nice if I could show that int pdx is actually a geodesic subject to energy conservation
I'm hoping someone can show this, or explain how it differs from what a geodesic would be (subject to a constraint of energy conservation)
I guess "shortest time" idea doesn't stop the zig zagging
because we're fixing time at 1s in my earlier example
yes, the universe isn't minimising time
a "shortest path" idea could work though
energy conservation + shortest path subject to a conserved energy path, would solve the zig zagging
so in the 1D case, this principle should be equivalenet to Hamilton's principle
but not sure if it extends well to 3D
well, if we define the length of a path as $\int pdx$, then it is true
there is no other notion of length here
is that what the arc length is though
length I mean spatial length
like euclidean distance
essentially in the 1D case, you could (a) compute all possible energy conserving paths that get you from (0,0) to (0,1)
but we r talking about lengths of spacetime paths
10:36
then if you take the path that is the shortest actual distance in physical space, it will be what was taken
this is a fact
what I don't know is if it applies to the 3D case
I just mean length of space path
@Kenshin this isn't true when there is a potential
in the 1D case, going from point 0 to point 0 in time 1s, if there is no zig zagging that path will essentially be 2*max height
in my 1D case there is a potential, the gravitiational potential
yes, and the actual path isn't the path which minimises spatial distance
that's my definition of "shortest"
sorry, i mean to write actual path
10:39
I believe it is for sure
in the 1D case
with a potential
the reasoning is:
if we fix (x_i, t_i) and (xf,tf), then the actual path isn't a straight line, which means spatial distance isn't being minimised
there is only one possible total energy that will get you from (0,0) to (0,1) [excluding the trivial case of not moving]
and if we fix energy then again $\int pdx$ is the thing that is being minimised
and that one possible energy give syou a max height h
so there is some height h
if we assume no zig zagging
so it seems solved
but when you add zig zagging
that means you can increase your energy
to something greater
and ordinarily that higher energy will mean you get back to pos 0 quicker than 1s, but the zig zagging slows you down so you get there in 1s after all
but that means your max height will exceed h
the path that minimizes zig zagging though will be the original h we calculated
which is what the physics selects
so that's why I'm pretty sure in the 1D case with a potential, if you look at all energy conservingv paths, then pick the one that is shortest distance, you get the right outcome
@Kenshin is this fixing xi t_i and xf tf?
10:42
yeha
we want to start at position 0 at time 0 and end up back at 0 at time 1
after throwing the ball up in the air, and it coming back down
the physics selects a nice path where you throw it up, and it reaches some height h, then comes back down after 1 s
then it seems to be incorrect. the path that minimises spatial distance between (0,0) and (0,1) is the path where the particle doens'nt move at all
but there are more possible energy conserving paths, such as throwing the ball up twice as fast, have it go up aand down and up and down and only then return to 0
yeah I did say to ignore that trivial case before, but thinking further I agree with you it probably can't be ignored
@Kenshin also take a simple harmonic oscillator in 1D. The actual path will be zig zag
I know the path will zig zag, but I"m talking about extra zig zags that aren't induced by force
the ones that are induced by force I thought could be explained by a combination of energy conservation and the specified start and end times
but Mauritius principle says $\int pdx$ is being minimised among the constant energy patha. this is not the same as spatial distance being minimised
10:47
right
so if int pdx is not minimizing distance or time
is there a nice way of understanding what it is minimzing
I have heard that under certain assumptions of the form of p, e.g. if p = mv as usually the case, then int pdx minimzies "curvature" of some metric
but I wonder if there's a nice way of understanding what int pdx is doing in general without having to know p = mv
i will reply if I get something...
11:22
WTF is the Mauritius principle? en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maupertuis%27s_principle
@PM2Ring yes. i meant this
@RyderRude I think the trivial case of the ball not moving between (0,0) and (0,1) is problematic both for my principle and the Maurapas principle
In Mauritius principle, wouldn't int pdx be minimzied if p is zero the whole time?
but we know that isn't the path
@PM2Ring it was discovered here
11:37
@Kenshin i think it is consistent with Maupertuis's principle. its just that we should not specify time for Maupertiuss's principle to hold
just specify xi=0, xf=0 and some value of E
depending on the specified E, the path where the ball doesn't move may or may not be an actual pat
@Kenshin i also think, if u want intuition for stationary action principle, u should work with Hamilton's principle. Maupertuis's principle seems outdated
wiki says this principle only gives u the shape of the path. it doesn't give x(t)
but I don't have any intuition for Hamilton's principle either. I take it as as axiom of physics @Kenshin
@RyderRude, to recap so far we have L = pq - H. Lagrangian minimizes int Ldt, which thus minimizes int (pq) - int(H)dt
and if we then assume this will select a path of conserved energy
this means Hamilton's principle is a combo of (a) selecting least energy path and (b) selecting the path that also satisifies Maurapas principle
ok, now we then have int p dx
but let's actually write this instead as
int (pv dt)
now I was hoping to be general, but let's temporarily set p = mv
then we have
int (mv^2 dt)
int (2*KE dt)
now the factor of 2 won't impact the minimization
so we have int (KE dt) that we want to minimze
so essentially this means the Maritipaus principle is trying to minimze the average kinetic energy over the path, subject to conservation of total energy
this is progress I think
the problem I have now is that this only seems to apply where p = mv
11:52
Is there a reason why the Sommerfeld expansion sometimes contains the first derivative of some function and sometimes the 2nd one?
12:02
@Kenshin i think this cannot be interpreted as the minimisation of average KE cuz time interval varies among the paths
maybe so for the Maritus princple
but let's just take Hamilton's principle
with L = pv - H
then Ldt = (pv)dt - Hdt
int Ldt = int(pv)dt - intHdt
again so far this is with fixed (x0,t0),(xf,tf) only
now if we're willing to temporarily assume that H is constant here
i.e. cosntrain on those paths
then int Hdt = H*(tf-ti) and now irrelevant for least action
and we are left with finding stationarity of L'dt = int(pv)dt
@SillyGoose I don't think so, because it's not particularly specific to groups: This follows mostly from a general (equally nameless) theorem about covering spaces and group action, where for a properly discontinuous action of some $H$ on simply connected $X$ we have that $\pi_1(X/H) = H$.
so then we are left with minimzing int(pv)dt = int(mv^2)dt
all this is with a fixed start and end time
so this is not exactly MAritipualis principle
but it does give insight into what the Hamilton's principle is doing
Your theorem follows once we observe that the action of $H/H_0$ is properly discontinuous on $G/H_0$
which is I guess finding paths that (a) conserve energy and (b) select paths with lowest average KE subject to (a)
just a shame that this only seems to apply when p = mv
I mean this can be seen most easily by starting with
L = T - K
Then if we assume paths will only be selected of constant total energy H
Then we can set K = H - T
and then L = 2T - H
the intLdt = int(2T)dt - int(H)dt
and again the int(H)dt is constant
so the least action principle is akin to minimizing int(T)dt where T is kinetic energy
but this only applies where L = T - K
12:11
@Kenshin so in general, u have the stationary action principle. And u also know independently that energy is conserved. so u only want to stationarise over paths along which energy is conserved, right?
but this does not allow u to disregard the $\int Hdt$ term from the action
I don't know independently. Conservation of energy is a consequence of least action as well. But I'm conditioning on it, to see what else least action is doing
"but this does not allow u to disregard the $\int Hdt$ term from the action" sure it does
H is a constant
so int H dt = H int dt = H(tf - ti) = const
no path variation will change since tf and ti are fixed
@Kenshin H for different paths need not be the same
I guess I'm also assuming H is not just constant, but a fixed value
oh
but this does not follow from conservation of energy constraint
that's true
12:14
so i think this program will not give u any intuition
u r just arbitrarily cutting down on the paths
we can't give up
I did cut out too many paths
but let's add it back
i.e. we'll still cut out the paths that don't conserve energy
but we'll allow H itselfto vary
right
now u can't throw out that term
so then we want to minimize average KE + H(tf - ti)
well not average KE sorry
12:16
yes
= average KE * (tf - ti) + H(tf - ti)
because it's only average when we cut out the H, if we don't cut out the H it's actually average *time
so then
we want to minimzie
= (avgKE + H)*(tf - ti)
now (tf - ti) is path independent
so we can take it out of the minimzation
so we want to minimzie avg KE + H
that's something isn't it/
it seems to be pretty much Hamilton's principle :P
Hamilton's principle gives u avg KE - avg PE
i think Lee's book had some intuition for Hamilton's principle
maybe the GR book
A Zee General Relativity
but it wasn't for the General Hamilton's principle. It was for the L=T-V case
U should just take the general Hamilton's principle as an axiom
The L = T - V case is a very specific case
12:20
Hamilton's principle shows up in field theory too. it is just an axiom
by Hamilton's principle do you mean minimzing L where L = int(vdp) - V
@qwerty You cannot state what the "flow map" is inside of the category of smooth finite-dimensional manifolds as the space of vector fields on some manifold $X$ is not a smooth finite-dimensional manifold itself. What you would want to say is that there is a smooth map $V(X)\to \mathrm{Hom}_\text{groups}(\mathbb{R},\mathrm{Diff}(X))$ that associates to a vector field its flow.
only where p = mv, is it the case that vdp = pdv
so only in p = mv is it the case that int(vdp) = int(pdv) = KE
@Kenshin i mean minimising $\int L(q, \dot q)dt$
yeah
12:21
this is just an axiom of physics
but it just doesn't seem fundemental to me
the physics is in guessing the correct L
for a start L does have to have aparticular structure
and it's contrived in classical mech to give rise to dp/dt = -dV/dx
and dp/dt = -dV/dx is very intuitive
so happy to take dp/dt = -dV/dx as an axiom
but taking minimising $\int L(q, \dot q)dt$ as an axiom seems wrong to me
12:23
@Kenshin this seems to hold for all known physical L
because we force it to
by choosing a suitable L
but I'm not sure
Say if I split the lagrangian into $L(m , \lambda) + L_{CT}$ where $L_{CT}$ is the counterterm, and I use a different renormalisation scheme, wont I have to use a different mass and coupling constant in the final calculations as $m$ and $\lambda$ will only be the experimentally realised values for the on-shell scheme?
the left side holds by tautology. cuz p is defined to be dL/dv
the right side is dL/dx in general. but it seems to become dv/dx in physical cases
yep
I can see how the maths works out
but I like to understand what's going on physically
12:24
E.g. say if I calculated a correlation function and the result was $f(m,\lambda)$, wouldn't I have to input a different $m$ and $\lambda$ if I used a different renormalisation scheme?
e.g. in Newton's laws I can picture a potential field influencing a particles momentum
i.e. dp/dt = -dv/dx can be easily visualised
but how do you visualise a particle minimizing int Ldt
even general relativity I can visualise a particle following a geodesic
so I was hoping I could somehow formulate least action as some kind of geodesic principle in combination with energy conservation
somethign intuitive like that
i think it cannot be done..
Eg will $m_{ON}$ and $m_{MS}$ have different values?
maybe least action then is just a mathematical trick
and the real physics is in Newton's laws
in general, u can maybe say the real physics is in the Euler Lagrange eqn
12:27
like there's probably hundreds of weird mathematical tricks that can recover newton's laws
@Kenshin what about field theories
maybe they're also mathematical tricks
@DIRAC1930 i will star the question so it doesn't get drowned
to handle the computations
doesn't mean the real physics is working as the field theory suggests
@RyderRude Thanks
12:27
maybe there is underlying force laws that you can convert them to
@Kenshin All of physics is just a "mathematical trick" to describe the world most efficiently.
maybe, but surely some maths more closely represents what's actually happening
e.g. I could have a complex book that looks up all the star positions
or I could have newton's laws
I would argue the notion "what's actually happening" is ill-defined.
i think it is not a co incidence that all known physical diff eqns come from an action principle. Don't u think an action principle is a good way to do physics? @Kenshin
Action principle is a good way to do calculations
12:29
@Kenshin but it has proven to be a good way to get new theories
maybe
people just guess an action
is that a good thing
yes
it is an easy way to get new theories
maybe it would be better if people thought about the physics of what's happening than just guessing an action
true but we need a deep understanding of what's actulaly happenign if we are to unite GR and QM one day
I don't know that guessing an L will cut it
12:31
See this question and its answers for discussions of how motivated the principle of least action is
but "what's happening" is ill defined. U only prefer Newton's laws as "what's happening" cuz u can intuit it. but that doesn't mean Newton's laws are what's happening
what's happening is observations
anything that gives the same observations counts as "what's really happening"
@Kenshin Do you even understand what the conflict between GR and QM is that you could make such a statement?
no but do you think I'm wrong
@Kenshin i do believe that quantum gravity should not come from an action principle
@Kenshin I think you're not even wrong - the level at which you are making these statements is so far removed from what the actual research is about it just doesn't apply
12:33
but it is just personal belief
regardless, most particle accelerator physics will come from action principles
i just think QG won't be an action principle theory, cuz QG would be a completely alien theory
So say if I split my Lagrangian in two different ways e.g. $L_{OS} + L^{CT}_{OS}$ and $L _{MS} + L^{CT}_{MS}$ where $OS$ refers to on-shell and MS refers to the MS renormalisation scheme. And say if I calculated a correlation function in the first scheme $f^{OS}(m_{OS},\lambda_{OS})$ and a correlator in the second scheme $f^{MS}(m_{MS},\lambda_{MS})$. Will I have
$$f^{OS}(m_{OS},\lambda_{OS}) = f^{MS}(m_{MS},\lambda_{MS})$$
where I have to independently work out what $m_{MS}$ and $\lambda_{MS}$ are?
like, thinking that people are "just guessing an action" is such a staggeringly poor description of how we actually construct theories it doesn't even rise to the level of being an intelligible criticism - there are worlds of nuance between being able to derive an action and "just guessing it"
And if you understood the slightest bit about the conflict between GR and QM you would understand that no one hopes to resolve this conflict by just finding a new action
sounds like we agree then, a new guess won't cut the mustard
@ACuriousMind Do you have an answer to my question?
Ron Maimon seems to suggest it's something about conserving information
12:39
@DIRAC1930 Like all renormalization parameters, the "renormalized mass" depends on the renormalization scheme beyond first order, yes.
So I would have to find the function $m_{MS}(m)$ where $m$ is the observed mass?
Depends on what you're doing and what you mean by "observed mass", but yes, there will be some relation between the renormalized mass and the "physical mass", i.e. the pole of the propagator. It can be arbitrary - Chiral Anomaly discusses a neat toy example here
Yes by observed mass I mean pole of the propagator which will be the same only for the OS renorm scheme
Thanks
@ACuriousMind to get solutions to Einstein field equation, does one have to fix topology of spacetime apriori, or are there formulations in which that is not required
13:08
@Kenshin i think Ron says a lot of handvawy things and personal hypotheses
information may or may not be conserved in quantum gravity. We don't know
the crowd that believes quantum gravity is a quantum theory thinks that information is conserved
@ACuriousMind hm so is it overkill to prove it this way:
13:29
Can one perform the sommerfeld expansion to integrals of the type:
$\int H(\epsilon)d\epsilon \frac{d f(\epsilon)}{d \epsilon}$, where $f(\epsilon)$ is the fermi dirac function? Essentially is it possible to perform the sommerfeld expansion to integrals that contain a quadratic power of the F.D function?
In our condensed matter theory
we were considering the relevant integrals for transport theory and
We encounter such integrals
13:50
When one speaks about the density of states, usually the definition is as: nr. of states per unit energy, which in itself is understandable. The problem I have is how this notion makes sense when we ask: "What is the system considered here"?
If you were to consider an electronic gas
which, for simplicity isolated
would a state of this system = microstate?
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