« first day (717 days earlier)      last day (4290 days later) » 

10:00 PM
@JasperLoy The section has only one theorem $(H,d)$ is a metric space, where $$d(x,y)=\left[\sum_{i=1}^{\infty}(x_i-y_i)^2 \right]^{1/2}$$
and $H$ is the space of all sequences of reall numbers such that $\sum_{i=1}^\infty u_i^2$ converges.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yeah, inner products induce norms, norms induce metrics, and metrics in turn induce topologies.
 
@JasperLoy Well, I think that is related to topology then.
@JasperLoy Remember what I was doing yesterday?
 
@PeterTamaroff If you are enjoying working through Mendelson, that is probably more important than any advice given by the rest of us - go for it!
 
@OldJohn =D
@JasperLoy Dude, you there?
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes, what's up?
 
10:12 PM
@JasperLoy I writing the proof that if $Y$ is a subspace of $X$ then $N'\in Y$ is a nieghoborhood of $a\in Y$ $\iff$ there exists a neighborhood $N$ of $a$ in $X$ such that $N\cap Y=N'$.
Now, I think this is one part:
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff And you are still using metric spaces right?
 
@JasperLoy Yes.
Suppose $N'\subset Y$ is a nbhd of $a\in Y$. Then $B_Y(a;\delta)\subset N'$ where $B_Y$ is an open ball in $Y$. Consider the same open ball in $X$, this is $B_X(a;\delta)$. Then $B_X$ is a neighborhood of $a$.
However, what I have is $B_X\cap Y=B_Y$ here...
I need to show there is an $N$ such that $N\cap Y=N'$.
 
Balls form a basis for the metric topology
 
@HenryT.Horton Yes.
 
And you just showed it is true for balls. So...
 
10:17 PM
@HenryT.Horton RIght, But then I have to change the wording of that.
 
Well whatever "that" is, go ahead and change it
 
@HenryT.Horton Well, I should star with "Since open balls about $a$ form a basis for the system of nbhds at $a$, it suffices to prove the result for open balls."
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff It's not clear what you mean by "the same" there.
 
@JasperLoy An open ball in $Y$ is $B_Y(a;\delta)=\{x\in Y:d(x,a)<\delta\}$
The "same" ball in $X$ is $B_X(a;\delta)=\{x\in X:d(x,a)<\delta\}$
Obviously this is a superset of the former ball.
 
user19161
10:22 PM
@PeterTamaroff I know, I am just pointing out that it is not clear unless it is already stated as such, this "same".
 
@JasperLoy OK. So it is clear $B_X\cap Y=B_Y$
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes.
 
@JasperLoy What was the motivation of this exercise?
 
How about a decent kick in the groin?
 
Benjamin Lim mentined something about this being the definition of topology, or something of the sort.
 
10:26 PM
This exercise is about the subspace topology
 
user19161
@JonasTeuwen What?
 
@JasperLoy 8-)?
 
If $X$ is a topological space and $Y \subseteq X$, then the subspace topology on $Y$ has open sets $U \cap Y$, where $U$ is an open set in $X$
So you really just showed that given a metric space $(X,d)$ and $Y \subset X$, the metric topology on $(Y, d|_{Y \times Y})$ is just the subspace topology on $Y$ induced from the metric topology on $X$
 
@HenryT.Horton Cool, thanks.
 
10:41 PM
@HenryT.Horton I still wondering how to prove the result with nbhds
I proved it one way.
That is, if $N$ is a nbhd of $a$ in $X$, then $N\cap Y=N'$ is a nbhd of $a$ in $Y$.
That is pretty striaght forward.
NOw I want to prove that if $N'$ is a nbhd of $a$ in $Y$ then there must exists a nbhd $N$ of $a$ in $X$ such that $N'=N\cap Y$. Mabye I can argue by contrapositive.
 
@JonasTeuwen Hi Jonas - sounds pretty indecent to me :P
 
You showed it that way....
With balls
 
@OldJohn :P.
 
$B_Y(a;\delta) = Y \cap B_X(a,\delta)$
 
Ah - the conversation is all about balls now :)
 
10:45 PM
@HenryT.Horton But can it be proven in the generality of nbhds?
 
Just play with the balls, Peter
5
 
Yeah, I like to play with balls. Double and bound them.
 
@HenryT.Horton HAHAHHAHAHAHAHHA
 
Don't go looking around the neighborhood for more
 
$\frac{8}{3}\pi r^3$ !!
 
10:46 PM
@HenryT.Horton One thing.
 
Ahh, the ballume of a pair of balls
 
When I say that open balls form a basis for the system of nbhds at $a$ I mean any nbhd of $a$ contains a point of an open ball about $a$.
 
Assuming they have equal radius
Peeter, do you know that any neighborhood is a union of ballz?
 
Balls usually have a slightly different radius because that way they don't get squished when you cross your legs.
 
@HenryT.Horton I know any open set is an union of balls.
 
10:49 PM
@JonasTeuwen Too much information
 
@OldJohn There is no such thing 8-).
 
@JonasTeuwen :)
 
A neighborhood is in particular an open set
 
@HenryT.Horton I have defined a nbhd of $a$ as a set containing an open ball about $a$.
@HenryT.Horton How can you prove that? Is is true for metric spaces?
 
My definition of a neighborhood of $a$ is an open set containing $a$
 
10:50 PM
Because I'm being asked to prove analogous results for open sets, closed sets and neighborhoods.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I'll leave you to work this out yourself, but be careful of using sweeping statements like since ... it suffices to ... Think of why it suffices if it really does or write the proof in another way.
 
@JasperLoy Well, open balls form a basis for the system of nbhds at $a$ because given any nbhd of $a$, it contains a point of an open ball about $a$.
(other than $a$)
 
user19161
@HenryT.Horton I am amazed by many things you say.
 
Harmonic analysts just play with the balls, bro.
I made that ball joke before :-(. I need more. Need to regenerate my brain.
 
user19161
@JonasTeuwen They play with the balls, but I play with my balls.
 
11:01 PM
What did I do this time, Sassper?
 
@JasperLoy Good fun eh...?
 
user19161
@HenryT.Horton Hmm, I dunno Sassry.
 
@JasperLoy How would you explain why it suffices to? I forgot why.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I won't do it this way, I'll just try to prove things directly. Maybe that's what you should do too.
 
@JasperLoy Well, I proved it directly in one way.
Then I ued the balls argument the other. I can't see hwo to prove the other way without my precious balls.
@JasperLoy What is your opinion on this exercise: "Consider the subspace $(\BBb Q,d\mid \BBb Q\times \BBb Q)$ of $(\Bbb R,d)$. Let $\{a_n\}$ be a sequence of rational numbers such that $\lim \; a_n=\sqrt{2}$. Prove that given $\epsilon 0$, there is a positive integer $N$ such that for $n,m>N$, $|a_n-a_m|<\epsilon$.
 
11:17 PM
What do you mean opinion
The exercise shows that $(\Bbb Q, d_{\Bbb Q \times \Bbb Q})$ is not a complete metric space
 
@HenryT.Horton He likes to critique books.
 
He also likes Justin Bieber, apparently.
 
@HenryT.Horton Doesn't it ask to show the sequence is Cauchy?
@HenryT.Horton LOL
 
Yes
And a complete metric space is a metric space where every Cauchy sequence converges to a point in that space
But $\sqrt{2} \notin \Bbb Q$
 
@HenryT.Horton Oh, OK.
And also, every convergent sequence is Cauchy.
 
11:20 PM
Yes
 
The inequiality should follow by the triangle inequality, right?
 
Choosing $|\sqrt 2 -a_n|< \epsilon /2$, $|\sqrt 2 -a_m|< \epsilon /2$
or something of the sort.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I am not sure what the exercise wants. Isn't a convergent sequence Cauchy already?
 
@JasperLoy But we haven't even mentinoed Cauchy sequences.
 
user19161
11:25 PM
@PeterTamaroff So I don't know the point of the exercise the way it is written.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yeah I seriously do not get the point of it.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Maybe he wants you to prove that a convergent sequence is Cauchy? Then that is quite silly.
 
user19161
Bye @peter! Have fun with your exercises!
 
@JasperLoy BYes
 
11:43 PM
I thought Jasper was leaving. I still see him on the side there.
 
11:55 PM
@HenryT.Horton He might be just inactive.
 
He is inert.
 

« first day (717 days earlier)      last day (4290 days later) »