so since the $g_k$ are nonzero in disjoint subsets $E_k$, the sup should be attained when $x \in E_{k_{min}}$, namely $E_{n+1}$ and so $$ \sup_{x \in [0,1]}\left\vert \sum_{k = n+1}^{n+p} g_k(x) \right\vert = \frac{1}{(n+1)+1} = 1/(n+2)$$
note that for my more general problem (assuming disjoint subsets E_k) you will have pointwise convergence no matter what the sequence c_k is, and uniform convergence when the sequence goes to 0
If a real-valued function $F:(a,b)\to\mathbb R$ is absolutely continuous on every compact subinterval of $(a,b)$, is then the set, on which the derivative of $F$ does not exist, a null set? If $F$ is absolutely continuous on $[a,b]$, this is the fundamental theorem of calculus. But here we only have absolute continuity on every compact subinterval.
psie: is there any relation you can think of between the set on which the derivative of F does not exist and the subsets of [a + 1/n, b - 1/n] on which the derivative of F does not exist (for n large enough so that this makes sense)
@leslietownes maybe if the sequence isn't decreasing to zero then you can't estimate the sup easily, if you take $c_k = k$ then in each interval the sup increases
@leslietownes ok, thanks. I argued by contradiction. If the set on which F' does not exist is not a null set, then it has positive measure 0<e<(b-a). But then we can find n large enough so that 0<2/n<e<(b-a) and note, 2/n is the sum of the measures of (a,a+1/n) and (b-1/n,b). So F' might not exist on these sets plus on some null set in [a + 1/n, b - 1/n]. So in total the set does not have measure e, but <2/n. Contradiction. So e=0.
@BenSteffan maybe the proposition i claimed earlier is slightly incorrect. the thing i can demonstrate is that the subcategory $BiCart(\Delta^1)$ of $CoCart(\Delta^1)$ is closed under limits. under straightening-unstraightening, this gives a certain subcategory of $\mathrm{Fun}(\Delta^1,\mathbf{Cat}_{\infty})$ closed under limits whose objects are precisely the left adjoints, but it's not so clear to me what the morphisms of this essential image are...
@psie you are taking a difficult route. the union of a countable number of null sets is still null. take the union of the null sets in leslie's comment.
the morphisms in the essential image do satisfy the condition that their components are also compatible with the corresponding right adjoints up to natural equivalence, but that condition might be strictly weaker
the potential issue being that the right adjoints themselves don't necessarily "see" the choices of cartesian lifts that were used to define them
no. on each of those sets there is a null subset $E_n$ where $F$ is not differentiable. then $\cup_n E_n$ is also null and $F$ is differentiable everywhere else.
Is it just "you take the functors in the other direction obtained from Cartesian straightening and then unravel the definitions to show that these are adjoint?"
Math experts: At school I learned that inverse Laplace transform of exp(-a s) is dirac delta(a-t) for positive a. but now I asked google and the google AI tells me that inverse Laplace transform of exp(-a s) is exp(a t) ! Below is screen shot. To see this yourself, if your google search gives AI answer, just type
what is inverse laplace of exponential?
In the search bar.
Hey everyone, I wanted to ask why, most of the time, do I not get much votes on answers I think are well-written and provide a quick/nice solution? I have seen similar answers by other high rep users that have garnered tens of upvotes, even if itβs just a simple trick!
Is this an indication of something wrong, or is it perfectly fine?
Mathematica gives DiracDelta[t-a] but Maple gives Dirac delta (a-t). But the point is the inverse laplace transform of exp(-as) should not be exp(at). Google seem to have a bug in its AI !
Given some disjoint, finite number of open intervals $(a_1,b_1),\ldots,(a_n,b_n)$. Under what condition(s) on $T:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ is it true that also $(T(a_1),T(b_1)),\ldots,(T(a_n),T(b_n))$ are disjoint?
There are two things I'm a bit wary about. First, is $T((a_k,b_k))=(T(a_k),T(b_k))$? I feel like it needs to be monotone for this. Second, are two pairs of intervals disjoint under $T$? Only if it preserves intersections, right? So some kind of injectivity, I think.
the intervals $(T(a), T(b))$ are not images of $(a, b)$ (understood as $\emptyset$ when $T(a) = T(b)$ and $(T(b), T(a))$ when $T(b) < T(a)$, I suppose)
although I suppose if you understand them this way then you can just demand that $T$ is monotone, without injectivity
Now lack of monotonicity should be equivalent to existence of $a < b < c$ such that $T(a) < T(b) > T(c)$ or $T(a) > T(b) < T(c)$. Then $(T(a), T(b))$ and $(T(b), T(c))$ won't be disjoint
so if we understand those intervals in this more general way, then this is equivalent to $T$ being monotone
@Jakobian ok. I can give you some more context behind it. I'm trying to show if $F$ is absolutely continuous on every compact subinterval on $(a,b)$ and $F'$ is increasing (where it is defined), then $F$ is convex.
Let $x, y \in(a, b), \lambda \in(0,1)$ and suppose that $x<y$. Moreover, let $T:[x, y] \to[x, z]$ be given by $T(t)=\lambda t+(1-\lambda) x$.
Here is where I'd like to say that $F \circ T$ is absolutely continuous, because if $\left(a_{1}, b_{1}\right),\left(a_{2}, b_{2}\right), \ldots,\left(a_{n}, b_{n}\right) \subset[x, y]$ is a finite collection of disjoint intervals, then so should $\left(T\left(a_{1}\right), T\left(b_{1}\right)\right),\left(T\left(a_{2}\right), T\left(b_{2}\right)\right), \ldots,\left(T\left(a_{n}\right), T\left(b_{n}\right)\right) \subset[x, z]$ be.
And $$\sum_{1}^{n}\left(T\left(b_{k}\right)-T\left(a_{k}\right)\right)=\sum_{1}^{n}\left(\lambda b_{k}-\lambda a_{k}\right)=\lambda \sum_{1}^{n}\left(b_{k}-a_{k}\right)<\sum_{1}^{n}\left(b_{k}-a_{k}\right).$$
@BenSteffan yeah, to be honest where I learned it (Land's book) "the cocartesian fibration classifying this functor is bicartesian" is used as definition of a functor admitting a right adjoint
if you have $y$ in the fiber over $1$, you can first pick a cocartesian lift $Ly\rightarrow y$ of $0\rightarrow 1$ and then a cartesian lift $Ly\rightarrow RLy$ of $0\rightarrow1$ and that gives you a $2$-horn that can be completed by cartesianness to yield you the component of the unit transformation $y\rightarrow RLy$ in the fiber over $1$
and, really, you can carry this out parametrically to obtain the bona fide unit transformation (or dually the counit transformation)
@psie If you interpret this how I wrote it, you can still make this work for more general $T$ as long as $T$ is Lipschitz
that is, if $F$ is absolutely continuous and $T$ is Lipschitz then $F\circ T$ should be absolutely continuous
If $L$ is the Lipschitz constant of $T$, and if sum of lengths of $(a_k, b_k)$ is $\leq \delta$, then sum of lengths of $(T(a_k), T(b_k))$ is $\leq L\delta$, so if you demand that $\delta'$ is like in the definition of absolute continuity of $F$ for $\varepsilon$, then if sum of lengths of $(a_k, b_k)$ is $\leq \delta'/L$, then sum of lengths of $(F(T(a_k)), F(T(b_k)))$ will be $\leq \varepsilon$
@XanderHenderson thanks for the advice, Mr. Xander Henderson. No, I am not writing answers merely for more upvotes, I do it because I love it. It gives me satisfaction. I felt that I should get feedback as per what I deserve, that's all.
@MathGuy Wrong honorific. If you are going to use honorifics, use the correct ones.
And noöne "deserves" upvotes. Or, frankly, any kind of feedback at all. If you post an answer and it gets upvotes, cool. If not, cool. If it gets downvotes, cool. Don't worry about it.
1. there appears a $b_n$ without that being ever defined 2. (most importantly) the conclusion in the penultimate sentence is incorrect. you cannot infer $a_{n+1}=a_n$, because the $N$ you have chosen depends on $\varepsilon$!
1. What is $b_n$? 2. $N$ depends on the choice of $\varepsilon$, so the conclusion that $a_n = a_{n+1}$ for sufficiently large $n$ seems not to follow.
also, generally speaking, your argument only used that the terms tend to $0$, which is much weaker than the actual assumption that the series converges, so that should raise some eyebrows
trying some simple examples shows that $\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ can very well tend to $0$ even if $(a_n)_n$ is unbounded
@MathGuy "Dr". Though, honestly, again, I prefer not to stand on ceremony. "Xander" is fine. But if you are going to use honorifics, use the right one.
@XanderHenderson Yep, just noticed it. Do you see an alternative approach to this? It seems just the fact that the thing in the sum tends to 0 is a bit weak
Consider part (a) of the above exercise. I'm a bit confused about how to show these measures equal. We are working with the Borel $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal B([c,d])$. If it were $\mathbb R$ instead of $[c,d]$, I'd show these two measures agree on the algebra of finite disjoint union of h-intervals, which are of the form $(x,\infty)$, $(x,y]$ and $\varnothing$ for $-\infty\leq x<y<\infty$.
But now I don't know what the algebra is that generates $\mathcal B([c,d])$. If I could work with compact intervals $[x,y]$, the image of these intervals under $G^{-1}$ would also be compact by continuity. Appreciate any help.
@Jakobian ah nice, didn't know. That's useful. So I have to show the measures agree on $(x,\infty)\cap [c,d]=[c,x]$, $(x,y]\cap [c,d]=[c,x]$ or $(x,y]\cap [c,d]=(y,d]$ or $(x,y]\cap [c,d]=[c,x]\cup (y,d]$ and finally $\varnothing$, which is trivial. So in total, show the measures agree on compact subintervals of $[c,d]$ and half open intervals $(x,y]\subset[c,d]$ and I should be good.
@Jakobian for $I$ a subinterval of $[c,d]$, how do we know $G^{-1}(I)$ is an interval? Continuity?
Definition of interval; for any $x<y$ in $G^{-1}(I)$, $z\in (x,y)$ is also in $G^{-1}(I)$.
I think it suffices to show the measures only agree on half open intervals $(x,y]$. If they do, then we can use the regularity definition of Lebesgue measure in terms of covers of half-open intervals to rewrite the half-open intervals in terms of $G^{-1}$ and hopefully arrive at something that resembles the regularity definition of $\mu_G$.
Yeah. You could treat this as "1-dimensional invariance of domain theorem" but although it is a particular variant of "invariance of domain", its easier to prove
To be fair, a lot of faculty here use the title "professor", and the term "professor" is far less protected in the US academic system than it is in most of Europe, but my advisor was French, and I am super uncomfortable being called "professor".
Yesterday, Buffy officially became Academia.SE's user with the greatest all-time reputation score: nearly 169K reputation! In just 2.5 years, Buffy has authored a stunning 3,742 answers and earned 48 gold badges, among many other positive contributions.
Academia.SE is lucky to have many highly ac...
Eric van Douwenβs paper βA regular space on which every continuous real-valued function is constantβ, Nieuw Arch. Wisk. $30$ $(1972)$, $143$-$145$, actually gives a βmachineβ for starting with a $T_3$ space having two points that cannot be separated by a continuous real-valued function and produc...
nope, the construction seems to still not quite compute
sad, I was interested in this "machine" producing $T_3$ strongly connected spaces
compute the values of the A,B with the $s$ expressions. you know $y(s)$. for example, consider $(s+3)^2y(s)$ and take the limit $s \to -3$. that will give $B$. its a grind
take the expression you have above where you wrote Shouldn't I do that. combine the expression so that the denominator is the same as $y(s)$'s denominator. now match the constant and $s^k$ terms to get the various values.
you can figure out $D+H$ more easily.
multiply bothsides of $y(s) = ...$ by $s-1$ and take the limit as $s \to 1$.