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02:12
"it is used in several research papers, indicating that it is a common phrase" ... it's nice when bogus reasoning is that transparent
haha
Did you not read the comment?! It said SEVERAL PAPERS!
SEVERAL!
MEANING LOTS AND LOTS AND LOTS!
IT'S SUPER COMMON!
several research papers
math research being a place where people are notably very sensitive to common English usage and extremely careful about word choice and phrasing
You're just saying what I'm saying!
We agree!
100%!
02:26
god haha where to begin with that "word problem"
i guess the price. the price is where to begin
then there's the rest of it
chef's kiss
if we want another 2008 crisis, this is how we get it
Indeed.
In other news, Zillow thinks I only have one bathroom.
any room is a bathroom. i decide how i use my rooms
@leslietownes Ha!
Zillow also thinks that my house has appreciated by \$35k in the last two years. I don't buy that, particularly considering that the house across the street has been sitting on the market for \$275k for over a year.
 
1 hour later…
04:09
sounds like you're selling houses for 100k tbqh
around here an approximate formula for the 'zestimate' is [last selling price of a nearby home] + 20%
 
2 hours later…
Ray
Ray
05:53
I had a basic doubt regarding the precise formulation of simultaneous substitution in predicate logic. Let $t_1,\ldots,t_n$ be a sequence of terms and $x_1,\ldots,x_n$ is a sequence of variables. Suppose also that the free variables of $\varphi$ are among $x_1,\ldots,x_n$, and $\varphi[t_1/x_1,\ldots, t_n/x_n]$ denote the result of substituting $t_i$'s in place of $x_i$'s. Does anyone know any simple recursive definition of $\varphi[t_1/x_1,\ldots, t_n/x_n]$?
06:10
@XanderHenderson whats wrong?
if I say f bijects A to B, do you think of f as a bijection from A to B or do you think of, idk, f is a rabbit or something?
06:30
did you just pull that out of a hat?
yes, copper hat.
almost makes me want to scroll back to see what that was about :-)
 
1 hour later…
Ray
Ray
08:26
Just in case, anyone in interested in a precise formulation of my earlier comment.
0
Q: On the Definition of Simultaneous Substitution of Terms in FOL formula

RayConsider a firsr-order language $L$. Let $\varphi$ be a formula, $t$ a term and $x$ is a variable. We define the formula $\varphi[t/x]$, which denotes the formula obtained by substituting $t$ in place of $x$, as follows (here, $P$ is a $n$-ary predicate symbol and $\dagger$ denoted undefined; it ...

 
2 hours later…
10:03
Define matrix ( B ) as the transpose of the transpose of the transpose of matrix ( A^T ). Then B is A^T or A
I think it is A
11:03
I'm reading about the following proposition:
Proposition If $F\in NBV$, then $F$ is absolutely continuous iff $\mu_F\ll m$.
In the $\implies$ direction, we suppose that $m(E)=0$ for a Borel set $E$ and if $\delta$ and $\epsilon$ are as in the definition of absolute continuity of $F$, we can find open sets $U_1\supset U_2\supset\cdots\supset E$ such that $m(U_1)<\delta$ (by regularity of $m$). This kind of makes sense. If $m(E)=\inf\{m(U):U\supset E,U\text{ open}\}$, then by definition of infimum we can find such a sequence. However, it is also claimed that $\mu_F(U_j)\to \mu_F(E)$. Why is this true?
11:50
It is true that $\mu_F$ is regular, but this means that the positive measure $|\mu_F|$ is regular. So $|\mu_F|(K_j)\to|\mu_F|(E)$ for some sequence $\{K_j\}$ of open sets. It is also not clear that we can simply choose $K_j=U_j$ (and why we'd get convergence for $\mu_F$ rather than $|\mu_F|$).
12:03
hi
How is it going?
 
1 hour later…
13:31
@Pizza Fine, what about you?
14:26
Has anyone here ever run into $$A(x)=B(x)+C(x)$$
and more to my point, has it served you any use?
To me we can look at this as a possible orthogonal decomposition of $A(x)$ into its "orthogonal" component functions $B(x)$ and $C(x)$.
@ModularMindset into what?
@ModularMindset no...? How is there even anything related to orthogonality. Its just a sum of functions
yes, I've added two functions before
I've removed like 3 things from my "to check" list just recently. Amazing
2 of those were just because I learned a little more about monotone normality
now that I know fully normal implies strongly collectionwise normal, and monotonically normal implies hereditarily collectionwise normal, I wonder what are relations between all those spaces
e.g. $\omega_1\subseteq \omega_1+1$ is not fully normal, so full normality is not hereditary for sure
so I guess, lets start with this, do there exists a monotonically normal $T_1$ space which is not fully normal (or equivalently, paracompact)?
14:48
While talking about the fact that the zero product property does not hold for the canonical product of a matrix and a vector, I was asking myself: which is the correct way of phrasing this when talking about where it does not hold? More explicitly: given $n\in\mathbb{N}\setminus\{0,1\}$, a field $\mathbb{K}$, a vector space $V$ on $\mathbb{K}$ and a matrix $A \in \text{Mat}_{n \times n}(\mathbb{K})$, should I say that the zero product property does not hold on $\text{Mat}_{n \times n}(\mathbb{K}) \times V$? Or just that it does not hold on $\text{Mat}_{n \times n}(\mathbb{K})$?
@Jakobian correction, monotonically normal $T_1$ implies hereditarily collectionwise normal. I don't know if we can drop $T_1$ assumption but most likely not - this seems to be essential for monotone normality. It gives us various equivalent definitions from which you can then prove e.g. that the property is hereditary
@Jakobian @Thorgott I mean this as a decomposition of $A(x)$ into components $B,C$ as a way to be able to work with $A(x)$ in a simpler form
I guess I'm looking for fun but not trivial examples of this
I prefer examples in analysis
There is an example by Cohen of a monotonically normal space which isn't strongly collectionwise normal, see here (although the author of the answer has some trouble fixing some arguments..hm)
okay so maybe there exists a hereditarily paracompact $T_2$ space which isn't monotonically normal?
maybe there already is such example
Is it common to feel overwhelmed and frustrated by studying math daily but not discovering anything new our own?
a Lindelof $T_3$ space is paracompact, so this example is a hereditarily paracompact $T_2$ space that's not monotonically normal
apparently the example is by Heath (the article seems to not be online) and there's another example by van Douwen, from an article that might not even exist
15:12
I concocted a problem (well-posed btw) that no mathematician can solve
I don't think that I can even solve it
@SoumikMukherjee I am fine thank you
A,B,C conjecture
A(x)=B(x)+C(x)
skull emoji
hi @SineoftheTime
15:18
skull conjecture
Skull Conjecture: Let $X=[0,1]^n$. For all $n>2$ $X$ admits a unique codimension one surface of revolution, $L$, with a complete metric (away from the cone points) and an embedding $e :L\hookrightarrow X$, which maximizes volume while retaining constant positive sectional curvature.

Assume the cone points $p,q$ satisfy $\mathrm{sup~dist}_n(p,q)=\sqrt{n}$ where $p,q \in L$.
$L$ is referred to as the Skull
convex skull
even better name lol
The Skull conjecture is true in dim. $n=3$
@SineoftheTime but convexity is not a given here in higher dimensions
@SineoftheTime what's up?
unless you know something I don't
@Pizza I'm good, what about you?
@ModularMindset it was a pun
15:29
good thanks, I'm currently taking a look at the pdf you told me about Fourier transforms
is it useful?
Yes
Yes
@SineoftheTime but do you happen to know on wolfram how the fourier transform is calculated?
but ω > 0
15:36
it is written in the text
can you send a screenshot?
2
A: Countable Regular Spaces Which Are Not Monotonically Normal

Brian M. ScottCompletely revised. In The cometrizability of generalized metric spaces, Section $4$, Taras Banakh and Yaryna Stelmakh construct a regular topology $\tau$ of weight $\omega_1$ on $\Bbb Q$ such that $\langle\Bbb Q,\tau\rangle$ is not cometrizable and hence not stratifiable. (I have not yet gone th...

or the number of exercise
Calculate the Fourier transform for $\omega > 0$ of the function
$f(x) = \frac{1}{x^3 - 8i}$
@SineoftheTime this is not in the pdf
Is it possible to somehow see the result on wolfram?
you can restrict the FT to the interval $[0,+\infty[$
but I'm not sure I understand why we need w>0
15:44
I don't understand why I get that result
strange, if $\omega>0$ then $\theta(-\omega)=0$
mmm
@LuckyChouhan discovering?
@SineoftheTime maybe to ensure the convergence of the integral and be able to apply the residue theorem
how is FT defined?
15:57
$x^3 - 8i = (x - 2i)(x^2 + 2ix - 4)$. This identifies a simple pole at $x = 2i$ and two complex poles that do not belong to the upper half-plane, so are not included in the boundary.
i think
@SineoftheTime $F[f(x)] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) e^{-i \omega x} \, dx$
@psie I'm still stuck on this. If anyone has any thoughts about it, let me know.
yeah maybe this has something to do with convergence
i think this means that the integration contour is closed in the upper half-plane to ensure the convergence of the integral
16:18
@SoumikMukherjee I don't exactly know what to say. I'm lost.
Ugh... 20 minutes into a 3 hour final, and people are still trickling in... why can't you be on time?!
We're even all in the same time zone now!
@XanderHenderson they... they're allowed to do that?!
@BenSteffan Given the population of students I work with, yes.
They will just have significantly less time to complete the assessment.
cam you send a copy of the exam when it's over?
@SineoftheTime Why?
16:24
just to see the level
It is, essentially, high school algebra.
ok, never mind then
Hi
If a chicken and a half lay an egg and a half in a day and a half, how many eggs will a hundred chickens lay in a hundred days?
16:43
@SineoftheTime I'll give you one exam problem:
@XanderHenderson thanks :)
16:58
@psie Can't we write $F$ as a linear combination of non-negative NBV functions, thus decomposing $\mu_F$ as a linear combination of non-negative (finite?) measures?
@Jakobian you're right, we can write $F=F_1^+-F_1^-+i(F_2^+-F_2^-)$ where $F_j^\pm\in NBV$ and so $\mu_F=\mu_1^+-\mu_1^-+i(\mu_2^+-\mu_2^-)$.
I'm not sure about the nonnegativity.
But yeah, I think it's possible though.
Because $F_j^\pm(-\infty)=0$ and they are increasing.
@Jakobian So you're saying that we can apply regularity to all $\mu_j^\pm$ to obtain open sets $K_j$ such that $\mu_F(K_j)\to\mu_F(E)$. But I still fail to see why the sets we get can be chosen to be equal to $U_j$. Recall, $U_j$ are sets that satisfy $m(U_j)<\delta$.
@psie No that's not what I'm saying
its not regularity that you need but continuity of measure
Can someone explain how they're getting the implication 'so it may be regarded as a vector space over k' from the previous part.
I guess it's something trivial but I can't see it
17:15
@Jakobian ok, makes sense 👍 I guess what I was doubting is $\bigcap_1^\infty U_j=E$, but I think this is just trivial to prove.
@psie this is not even true
@SoumikMukherjee if an $R$-module $M$ is annihilated by the ideal $I$, then it becomes an $R/I$-module via $(r+I).m=r.m$ for all $r\in R$ and $m\in M$
@Thorgott Oh okay thanks
@Jakobian the $U_j$'s can be constructed like this; $m(U_j)<m(E)+1/j=1/j$ by definition of $m(E)=\inf\{m(U):U\supset E,U\text{ open}\}=0$. Yeah, I'm not sure $\bigcap_1^\infty U_j=E$, maybe not?
@psie there are Borel sets which aren't $G_\delta$
One example would be the rational numbers
17:32
@Jakobian but how do you want to use continuity of measure then? We want $\mu_F(U_j)\to\mu_F(E)$. This means $\lim_{j\to\infty} \mu_F(U_j)=\mu_F(E)$, and $\lim_{j\to\infty} \mu_F(U_j)$ means either $\mu_F(\bigcap_1^\infty U_j)$ or $\mu_F(\bigcup_1^\infty U_j)$, so I'd expect $E=\bigcap_1^\infty U_j$ or $E=\bigcup_1^\infty U_j$.
I guess $\bigcap_j U_j$ (or $\bigcup_j U_j$) and $E$ can have same $\mu_F$-measure but need not equal?
18:10
@psie yeah I don't know. Not my field to be honest
18:36
Is networking also difficult in the math world for you?
What is the statistics on mathematicians in academia and religion?
Scientists generally speaking have low number of people who are religious. I am wondering how it is with math
there is definitely limited data
@ModularMindset what exactly do you mean by that
but from some of the studies i looked at
tough to tell - I would predict mathematicians are not far off from the data collected about the scientists in general
could you link me some study that discusses actual percentages
18:44
would be cool if there was some ordering Mathematicians<physicists<chemists<biologists<sports scientists
That link is not really study
but I honestly can't find much
there are a bunch of high profile mathematician anecodotes - but that's not terribly good I guess
Someone should do a study on this :)
how to get good data from anybody on anything related to religious belief is a challenging problem of survey design
@Jakobian I mean, we ain't scientists. :D
probably an unsolved one
@ModularMindset Honestly, I would expect mathematicians to be more religious, on average, than most scientists. Mathematics is not empirical, and doesn't rely directly on observation of the world to come to conclusions. Moreover, there are certain parts of mathematics that tend to invoke mysticism (e.g. lots of mathematicians seem to have a semi-mystical, Platonic view of the field).
19:16
if i worked in academia (particularly at a public school) and someone asked me to fill out a survey on religious belief, the first and only thing i'd wonder on my way to putting it in the trash was what pre-formed narrative they were intending to fit their survey data into. same with any other subject really, people are always trying to 'prove' that academics need more time/money, or could do more with less of those things, and most academics know this. good luck getting survey data out of them
Have any of you reached the mathematical plateau?
It's when you love math so much that you start to hate it again, but your learning rate actually increases because you're not over-studying, so the brain has ample time to recharge, you get a greater view of the mathematical landscape etc. 😎 The view is nice fellow maths. Don't envy me, just keep going! You will eventually get here.
@copper.hat it's all a Lie (group). I have a book somewhere called "Naive Lie Theory", got it as a b-day gift one year, I pronounced it incorrectly 😬
referring to your starred comment
("mathematical plateau")
It's a thing
19:58
@leslietownes my religious belief is Grothendieckism obviously
2
I, too, believe in Grothendieck universes
acolyte of the church of large cardinals
(one may argue this is just catholicism)
20:19
@LukasHeger apostasy
departure from the True math
21:04
If $f\in L^1(m)$, how come $F(x)=\int_{-\infty}^xf(t)\,dt$ is in $NBV$, where $NBV=\{F\in BV:F(-\infty)=0\text{ and }F\text{ is right continuous}\}$?
I think $F(-\infty)=0$ is DCT, but why is it in $BV$ and right continuous.
21:31
psie you are hiding the ball a bit here :) various books may define these classes slightly differently such that you can't just divorce this from its appearance in a particular book. but maybe look at folland's corollary 3.6 to theorem 3.5 for the continuity
as also e.g. suggested by folland, under the result you are asking about, referring in part for its proof to his 'proposition 3.32,' which cites his theorem 3.5
ah yeah, corollary 3.6, the absolute continuity of the integral. Ok, I'll take a closer look 👍
yeah, the theorem 3.5/3.6 is way more fundamental than a lot of that other stuff, if i'm being honest
unless you just like knowing about versions of the FTC, which many people inexplicably do
indeed. I still don't quite see from what result (theorem or proposition) we can tell that $F(x)=\int_{-\infty}^xf(t)\,dt\in BV$ whenever $f\in L^1(m)$. It feels like that should be something already proved too...hmm.
theorem 3.29 might help with that?
i don't mean to be rude, but why would you care
i would have stopped reading this part of folland by now :)
that's rude
2
21:48
some vibe things are, from radon nikodym theorem, "lebesgue integrating with respect to an L^1 function" is a prototypical example of a measure that is absolutely continuous with respect to lebesgue measure (or a "complex measure" if f is not nonnegative but just a random L^1 function)
stop reading about measure theory, read about ambidexterity in chromatic homotopy theory instead
much cooler :)
what are you measuring anyways
and this vibe fits into theorem 3.29 which talks about circumstances when the function "x -> measure of (-infty, x]" will wind up in NBV
ben i'm still not convinced that 'chromatic homotopy theory' has any existence separate from being a joke here
that's rude
ok, thanks leslie. I will start laying the puzzle
well good, i meant to be rude this time :)
21:51
hope you're not colorblind if you study 'chromatic homotopy theory'
yeah, sounds like a very ableist field
I will split you up into your monochromatic layers and analyze your periodicity phenomena one by one
yes, and now they even demand I use both my hands :(
I will write with my left hand for the talk tomorrow to stay with the theme
what's it matter if anybody can read what I write anyways :)
bad luck for lefschetz
not that anybody could do that if I used my right hand either but

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