so many symbols, giannis :D coordinates in a change of basis are usually some matrix product, involving matrices related to the change, applied to the old coordinates. i'm a little nervous about the word "homogeneous coordinates" here, it's suggesting to me that maybe the basic linear algebra will apply to slightly more numbers than you count as "cooordinates" and then the "homogeneous" part will involve doing some other thing.
@leslietownes thanks! Indeed homogeneous is used mainly for translation to include it in the transformation matrix. I think that a translated orthonormal basis in no longer orthonormal.
I'm getting stuck on another thing while reading the Hahn decomposition theorem. Let $\nu$ be a signed measure that does not assume the value $\infty$ and let $\nu(A)>0$. Then it is claimed that for $C\subset A$ with $\nu(C)<0$ we have $$\nu(A\setminus C)=\nu(A)-\nu(C).$$ Why does this formula hold? As far as I understand, monotonicity does not hold for signed measures.
Monotonicity is what I'd use to prove that formula for positive measures.
psie: if E_1 := A\C, E_2 := C, E_n = emptyset for n >= 3, then E_j is a sequence of disjoint sets in M. doesn't bullet 3 of your definition of signed measures imply that nu(A) = nu(A\C) + nu(C)
as a threshold point, following xander, i would work in cases, to see what cases of nu(A) would correspond to that
like up above with what was going on if m as defined in that sup was +oo, what cases would correspond to that
not just "does stuff like this potentially bust extended real arithmetic in this kind of situation" but "would this bust what the theorem is saying about this case"
and maybe it does and maybe it doesn't, but it seems like you're spiralling right into "it does"
can you construct a minimal example where it's a problem
the baseline thing would be like, let's try a two point measure space, or whatever
okay, so nu(A) has positive [and implicitly non infinite by hypothesis] measure? by the first part of the first sentence of the sentence beginning "Second, if..."
doesn't that and the equality nu(A) = nu(A\C) + nu(C) imply that nu(C) has finite measure
it's really helpful if to try to test any theorem/argument against some application or example, because then it becomes possible to pinpoint something that is actually going wrong, vs. something that just "feels unaccounted for" in that maybe the phrasing of some proof by some author is just not expressly talking about it
bear in mind that in any application of any of this stuff, the details of follands proof would vanish and you would have, at most, the hypotheses and conclusion of folland's theorem
and maybe in worse cases, "something very similar to the hypotheses" of folland's theorem and "something like the conclusion" of his theorem
good to start with something like folland though where the background assumption that the author paid some attention to what they were doing has a likely basis in fact
maybe less so with random internet sources or even large-publisher-published-textbooks written by random people
@leslietownes so to summarize. Let C be a subset of A. If nu(A) has finite measure, then nu(A\C)=nu(A)-n(C) holds for signed measures (a signed measure by the definition from Folland, where nu can only assume one of positive or negative infinity). For positive measures, at least skimming through Cohn's book, he actually proves this and writes that nu(C) must have finite measure (here nu is a postive measure). Of course, I understand why though.
I skimmed through Cohn's book because that formula isn't proved in Folland's, probably since it is an immediate consequence of additivity.
yeah. and generally, there is a lot of give and take between different textbooks about how to define these things, and the static between them is not particularly meaningful in this example. you sometimes do run into situations where one textbook is somehow, by virtue of its definitions or hypotheses, considering a vastly more general context than another, or addressing more cases than another. this does not appear to be one of them.
as far as i've currently looked or read, this looks like a situation of, slightly different definitions leading to slightly different proofs. there isn't going to be, like, "the hahn decomposition theorem," let alone "the proof of the hahn decomposition theorem," that we can put under glass in france and all refer to. you always have this static around the edges.
something i noticed bourbaki doing that i won't mock them for is that in definitions, they tended to seem to be pretty broad, even sometimes losing what one might think of as "the point" of a definition, to give this broad other thing. a definition that is easy to satisfy is a definition that is easy to operationalize and verify in practice.
even if "in practice" is limited to "is what book X saying about Y from their definition of Y actually true, and if so can i prove it from book Z"
bourbaki sometimes seem to be expressly trying to be book Z there
bourbaki isn't usually used as a reference in analysis although some of their analysis stuff is actually pretty good. their stuff got frozen in amber from the lifetimes of some of the more analysis focused contributors
@psie things that bug me in texts: one of the homeworks in Folland is to prove Lusin's theorem and the hint is to use Theorem 2.26. but the requirements on $\mu$ in 2.26 are stronger than those in the homework problem.
I talked to my professor. My approach was kind of correct, but I forgot one crucial thing: showing not only that $\exists y_0$ such that $\phi(y_0)=0$, but it must also be unique. Which it’s true since in my case $\phi ‘(y)$ is strictly decreasing
Nobody cared probably but I decided to share this anyways in case somebody actually were interested
i just figured out my method of studying before was extremely inefficient. It took me a while but finally i think i found the method that works best for me
the key i think is to not take math way too seriously. maybe it was obvious but idk
As one of the greatest characters from the goat anime once said "You should enjoy the little detours to the fullest. Because that's where you'll find the things more important than what you want.”
For the construction of $\mathbb R$ using Dedekind cuts, my professor defined $L$ as a left subset and then $L + L' = \{s + s' \mid s \in L \wedge s' \in L'\}$. Afterwards, he defined $L \cdot L' = \{s \in \mathbb Q \mid s < r \cdot r' \text{ with $r \in L$, $r \in L'$ and $0 < r$, $0 < r'$}\}$. But isn't it supposed to include $r \cdot r'$?
A subset $L \subset \mathbb Q$ with $L \neq \mathbb Q$ is a left subset if $x \in L \wedge y < x \implies y \in L$ and $\forall_{x \in L} \exists_{y \in L}: x < y$.
So much notation... the intuition is that if something is in a "left subset", then everything to the left of that thing is also in the set (the first condition); and that if something is in the set, then there is also something to the right which is in the set (the second condition).
That second condition pretty much explicitly says that there is no greatest element.
but a weak $(0,1)$-category is essentially the same thing as a preordered set lol
in general, an inductive definition should probably do the trick: a weak $(n,k)$-category is an $(\infty,k)$-category whose mapping categories are $(n-1,k-1)$-categories
Hi everyone, I have a question. If a user has offered a bounty for an existing answer, but this same user has been temporarily suspended, what happens to the bounty?
@Jakobian With this definition, where exactly did we close all the gaps in $\mathbb Q$? How come just because we take this set of left subsets as $\mathbb R$, we get no holes? And how do we identify $L$ with a real number as we know it?
Hi! Does anyone know what this kind of graph transformation is called (img below)? Something like splitting a node into 2 connected nodes, while keeping the rest of the connectivity of the graph intact?
1,2,3,4,5 are edges to the rest of the graph from node A in the original graph G
it's hard to answer questions like that without just diving into axioms and definitions and proofs. you have to balance any intuition you might have for Q itself plausibly being 'the number line,' with the fact that for many purposes Q just won't do
soham: how do you decide which edges go with which new vertex? before i look for a candidate name for this operation, i'm not sure i understand what the operation would be.
OK, so for a given vertex in a given graph we generally have something like a family of operations, as opposed to one particular kind of transformation.
@ILikeMathematic But we only know left subsets of rational numbers, right? We don't know what the left subset of an arbitrary $a\in \mathbb{R}$ might be, if we still trying to define $\mathbb{R}$... What am I missing?
@leslietownes Actually I was trying to prove non-planarity of a given graph. I believe this transformation preserves non-planarity, and so am looking for a name.
Actually, we don't even define left subsets "of $a\in \mathbb{Q}$". We just define left subsets in general, using rational numbers. They're not associated (yet) with rational (or real) numbers... (even though we want to write them as $(-\infty, a)$)
Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph and $e\in E$ be any edge. Let denote $G/e$ denote the graph obtained by contracting the edge e.
Proof: If G is a planar graph, so is G/e
While this is intuitively clear, I don't know how to formulate it.
Would appreciate any help
@SohamSaha there's no answer to the question i just posted, but there are some links and terminology. do they help? your G would be an "edge contraction" of G'
In graph theory, an edge contraction is an operation that removes an edge from a graph while simultaneously merging the two vertices that it previously joined. Edge contraction is a fundamental operation in the theory of graph minors. Vertex identification is a less restrictive form of this operation.
== Definition ==
The edge contraction operation occurs relative to a particular edge,
e
{\displaystyle e}
. The edge
e
{\displaystyle e}
is removed and its two incident vertices,
u...
appears to be a kind of inverse to the family of operations you are thinking about
@leslietownes Ah, that question is exactly what I need I think. If planarity of $G'$ implies planarity of $G$, then we can conclude that reverse edge contraction preserves non-planarity
@ILikeMathematic How do we approach the gap thing? First of all, we need to say what we mean by "gaps", I suppose. The thing is, I believe you just build the whole $\mathbb{R}$ and its operations using the cuts. So, for example, you'll need to show that there is some cut $L$ such that $L'+L=L'$, for every $L'$. Then you'll name this guy "zero". Show then that there is a cut that behaves as "one". Things are commutative, associative, bla bla bla
it's wild to me that graph theory is so 20th century of a thing. wagner of "wagner's theorem" for example was younger than both of my grandfathers and lived long enough that i could have met him
it feels like humanity should have gotten to that stuff sooner
the sermon on the mount is really about edge contraction
derso: well, yes, but to me, elementary graph theory seems particularly trivial after it's done, if that makes any sense
i sort of understand why it took until the 20th century for people to introduce the lebesgue spaces L^p for example, although those aren't particularly counter intuitive either
@leslietownes I'm not sure that there was much interest in it until the 20th century because there wan't any obvious application, and a lot of the now-obvious applications require a lot of computing time to do anything useful.
@leslietownes I was trying to prove the non-planarity of this graph (below), by contracting edges and going till $K_5$. But I need to show that the inverse retains non-planarity, so that I can prove that the original graph is non-planar
And I have no idea about "minor", need to read up about it.
do you know for a fact that the graph isn't planar? living in 2024 there is software that should be able to answer this quickly for a small number of vertices and low investment of time in input into that software
i guess it's trying to widen the visual range of color information from a given input, which you might do if the image conceivably carried a lot of color information but was taken under circumstances that washed it out
which would be more about photos of people and places than stuff drawn on paper
OK. do you believe the picture? does it show or suggest a sequence of edge contractions that lead to K_5? if you assume wagner's theorem, such a picture would be a proof that the original graph was not planar
So, since "building a minor" contains edge-contraction as a valid transformation, so if the contraction steps are all right, then I have successfully proved non-planarity right?
as a matter of the logic of everything, yes. so it might just be a question of how you visually present this information to whoever would be evaluating your work
Let $\mathbb K$ be an ordered archimedean field and $I = (a,b) = \{x \in \mathbb K \mid a < x < b\}$ a non-empty interval in $\mathbb K$. To show that there exist rational numbers in $(a, b)$, why can't we just pick $\frac{a+b}{2}$?
@ILikeMathematics I see. So, for example, $\sqrt{2}$ is associated to the left subset of rational numbers $q$ such that $q^2<4$. We need to show it indeed agrees with that formal definition of left subsets etc
So, the $\sqrt{2}$ "gap" is solved.
However, to speak of "gaps" in general, I guess we need to talk about Cauchy sequences of left subsets. And show that every such sequence converges (in the set of left subsets).
In particular, to talk about Cauchy sequences, we need to define a metric on the set of left subsets. In short, you'll need to define everything we want from $\mathbb{R}$ only using the cuts.
some books use horrible math notations. They use / for fraction instead of real \frac{}{}. How would you read this (image below). Do you read it as
t^2/( y * (1+t^3) )
or as
(t^2/y) * (1+t^3) ?
if i had to give it an interpretation, i would give it the former interpretation, but if i could talk to the author i would strongly caution them against writing like this, and if i saw anything like that in a textbook i would recommend that nobody use that textbook
The book is Differential equations. An introduction to modern methods and applications. James Brannan, William E. Boyce. Third edition. Wiley 2015 I think they use microsoft word to typeset math. This is from page 79
But now I'm thinking of one more detail. How do we define a metric on the set of Dedekind cuts (in order to talk about Cauchy sequences), if we still don't have $\mathbb{R}$ to define what a distance function is... 🤔
the one thing that any author of any math textbook should do, is not reinforce negative stereotypes about math, including "you need to know secret rules of inference to figure out what i'm saying"
@Nasser it wouldn't surprise me if they did, although if this is just one thing on one page it wouldn't surprise me if this escaped the editorial process
@Derso You don't need Cauchy sequences to get all the non-metric properties of $\mathbb{R}$ that you want. The Dedekind construction gives you "easy" access to the least upper bound property, which is what you really need to show that there are no "gaps".
@Derso Anything that you can show with the Cauchy construction (about $\mathbb{R}$ being a complete ordered field, or whatever set of adjectives is needed to uniquely define $\mathbb{R}$) can be gotten from the Dedekind construction, and vice versa.
@leslietownes We can't, because to talk about Cauchy sequences, we need distance functions, and to talk about distance functions, we need $\mathbb{R}$...
You can define $\mathbb{R}$ as the Cauchy completion of $\mathbb{Q}$, even if you have no a priori access to $\mathbb{R}$. You simply take the metric on $\mathbb{Q}$ to be $\mathbb{Q}$-valued.
nasser i am torn between validating your completely justified concerns and not wanting to validate the idea that every textbook is or should be flawless
it's very possible for stuff like this to occupy like 5 cycles of brain time and then you just sigh and move on
i remember paying between $50 and $100 in 1997 for an overpriced differential equations book that boyce co-authored, and it was too much, and it is still too much for crap like that
yes, it's quite different from dedekind cuts. sequence constructions make managing the definitions of arithmetic easier, at the cost of introducing these really large sets of sequences and equivalence relations on them
if you have access to this much commutative algebra (which at this point of course you don't but) you immediately get out that $\mathbb{R}$ is a field :)
then of course you need to set up the order, which I believe is more painful
@leslietownes The Dedekind construction makes the least upper bound property a cinch, but arithmetic is a pain, and some of the metric properties are a little harder. The Cauchy construction gives you all the metric properties for free and doesn't hurt too much for arithmetic, but the lub is a bit of a pain.
Thus striketh the Law of Conservation of Difficulty.
i like books that don't construct R from anything, or even suggest that this is a worthwhile project. just give me the axioms for a complete archimedean ordered field
a huge portion of students will miss the point of literally everything, and the 'good' students will enter into a spiral of the universe of all possible constructions and what their favorite is
@Derso At the end of the day, it comes down to what you believe are the things which fundamentally define the trig functions. In most of the classes I teach, the functions are defined in terms of the unit circle. $\cos(\theta)$ is the $x$-coordinate of the point where the angle $\theta$ intersects the unit circle, and $\sin(\theta)$ is the $y$-coordinate of that point.
These two functions are "primitive" in that setting, and the remaining trigonometric functions can be defined in terms of those two primitive functions. Yes, they are horizontal translations of each other (i.e. $\cos(x) = \sin(x+\pi/2)$, or whatever), but that isn't really the primitive notion that I have in my head.
Indeed, that relation is most easily understood with respect to the unit circle by way of a rotation.
Of course, $\tan(\theta)$ is also relatively easily understood as the slope of the angle $\theta$, so there is a nice geometric interpretation there, as well.
@XanderHenderson You can define $\cos (\theta)$ as the $x$-coordinate of the point as you said and then prove the $y$-coordinate is the $\cos$ (or "$x$-coordinate") of the figure rotated $-\frac{\pi}{2}$ lol
There are at least 12 trig functions, but I think that the best pedagogical approach is to present cosine and sine as the two most primitive trig functions, and define everything else in terms of those two.
@Derso Many students have this in their heads when they get to my class. I think that this is the "wrong" primitive notion, however, as it only defines cosine and sine on $(0,\pi/2)$.
Yes, but that can be easily "solved" by imagining a circle with radius given by the hypotenuse and then extending the notion using the $x$ and $y$ coordinates as you do
There is this weird phenomenon occurring, that it seems that to create topological spaces with zero-dimensional compactifications, one just removes the assumptions that $X$ is locally compact by $\beta X\setminus X$ being locally compact, then by $\overline{\beta X\setminus X}\setminus (\beta X\setminus X)$ being locally compact. I wonder how much deeper can I go and does it go infinitely deep.
I suppose I can replace this condition by, let $r(A) = \overline{A}\setminus A$, then I guess it suffices to assume that $r^n(A)$ is locally compact for some $n$
Or maybe equivalently, that $r^n(A) = \emptyset$ for some $n$
I wonder how to call this property which generalizes compactness and local compactness
Other things I am curious about, is that if $r^n(A) = \emptyset$ in a compact Hausdorff space $X$, and $A\to Y$ is an embedding into a compact Hausdorff space, does $r^n(A) = \emptyset$ in $Y$
this would make sense as local compactness and compactness have this property (n = 1 and n = 2)
I propose the name $n$-compactness. What do you think?
does this property even exist in literature. Why did no one tell me about it
damn I need some answers
wait I am confusing myself
No I'm not confusing myself. If $n = 2$ then $\overline{A}\setminus A$ is closed, so that compact, so that $A$ is open and dense in $\overline{A}$, so $A$ is locally compact
and conversely, if $A$ is locally compact then $A$ is open in $\overline{A}$
Consider the operation $r_X(A) = \overline{A}\setminus A$ in a space $X$. Here, suppose that $X$ is a compact Hausdorff space.
Call a space $A$ to be $n$-compact in $X$, if $r_X^n(A) = \emptyset$ where $r_X^n$ means the operation $r_X$ iterated $n$ times.
Being $1$-compact is equivalent to compac...