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12:49 AM
@TedShifrin Yes, but even with gloves, I would consider it using fingers. Differing points of view, I guess.
 
∆(pov)
0.999... hour later...
 
1:42 AM
just don't touch the tip. i'll just leave it at that.
 
the problem is that there is no different point of view in between 0.999... and 1 :P
at least not a "real" one
 
1:58 AM
Well, $0.\dot{9}$ doesn't really make sense without a topology...
 
2:22 AM
it doesn't "real"-ly make sense without a "real" number line
 
3:05 AM
@copper.hat Oil from fingers heats up on the bulb and can cause it to break, or at best, fog up the enclosure.
 
4:04 AM
@robjohn I know, I'm just kidding :-).
 
 
4 hours later…
Mad
8:26 AM
can an open neigbourhood around a point be disjoint?
If it is for examples two balls, one contains the point, the other not, they are both open. If we take their union. Is it still considered an open Neigbourhood around a point
It seems to me correct, so if we have a diffeomorphism from this open neighbourhood $U$ containing the point, and a diffeomorphism $h$ and an open subset $V$ let $M$ be a submanifold. then $h(U \cap M ) = V \cap \mathbb{R}^k \times \{0\}$
i am interested in the shape of the subset $V \cap \mathbb{R}^k \times \{0\}$. In a book i am reading, it says, it is an open interval for $k=1$. However, if $V$ is disjoint, then we will have a union of open intervals, is this okay? or is the continity of the diffeomorphism vorbid that
 
Mad
8:41 AM
 
Hi Everyone!

I'm playing with the St. Petersburg wager:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/St._Petersburg_paradox

the expected payoff is:

$\mathbb{E}(payoff) = \sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n} n = \infty$

the variance would be:
$\mathbb{E}(payoff^2) - \mathbb{E}(payoff)^2 = \infty - \infty$

How to interpret this variance? Does payoff converge to a degenerated random variable with variance 0? Intuitivly it doesn't make sense, it seems that it should rather be infinite, right?
 
9:19 AM
If $|\sum_n a_n|$ converges for $a_n\in\Bbb C$, then $\sum a_n$ converges?
 
Mad
use traingular inequality to check
 
9:35 AM
@onepotatotwopotato how do you want to make sense of this expression otherwise?
 
@onepotatotwopotato Treating $C$ as $\mathbb R^2$, note that $a_n$ converges iff re $a_n$ and im $a_n$ converge.
 
Or just notice that C is a Banach space
 
@Jakobian Right... I was thinking something like $re^{i\theta}$ and $\theta$ oscillates..
@Koro I see. Thank you
 
 
2 hours later…
12:12 PM
@Mad an open neighborhood cannot be disjoint, for that expression does not make sense
a single subset can not be disjoint or not
only when you have two subsets, you can ask whether they are disjoint or not
 
12:45 PM
$\square ({}_2F_1 (a,b;c;z)) = a^!b^!c^! \square(z^n) x^{x!}$
 
1:12 PM
Geometric proof of Gauss-Lucas theorem
 
 
2 hours later…
3:11 PM
cute. i like the symbol-pushing proof on wikipedia.
 
the watchamacallit
 
3:41 PM
Suppose that $E\subset R$ and $\lambda^*$ is outer measure induced by Lebesgue measure. Then given any $\epsilon>0$, there exists an open set $F_\epsilon$ such that $\lambda^*(E\triangle F_\epsilon)<\epsilon$.
In this theorem, $E$ must be measurable, right? Otherwise, the theorem may not hold.
 
sounds like you've answered your own question? be confident, koro
 
can anyone give me a hint on the (simple) differential equation above?
 
I want to find a sequence $x^{(n)}\in \cal l^p$ such that $||x^{(n)}||_p\rightarrow \infty$ but $||x^{(n)}-x||_q\rightarrow 0$ for $x\in \cal l^q$. Where $1\leq p<q<\infty$.
But somehow I'm a bit lost how to start.
 
The system is separated into three independent equations. Each equation is separable
 
Okay. I am getting confused by something very elementary. According to this tutorial.math.lamar.edu/classes/calciii/eqnsofplanes.aspx , given $ax + by + cz = d$, the equation of a plane, the normal vector is $(a,b,c)$ However, if you compute the dot product of $(a,b,c)$ with a point on that plane, you get $d$...which isn't necessarily $0$...What am I misunderstanding?
I am trying to find the normal vector to the plane $2x – y + 2z = 2$.
 
3:53 PM
overtherainbow: if you can identify a single sequence c in ell^q \ ell^p, wouldn't something like x^n = x + c/n work (or some truncations of c if you want the x^n to have finite p-norm)
oh, i see you do want the x^n to have finite p-norm
this idea at least sets up a simpler problem of whether it is possible to truncate so that you get finite but increasing p-norms
 
okey
I will try to work it out
 
i guess if you can find an example of such a c, try x + c_n/f(n) where c_n is the nth truncation and f(n) goes to infinity but at a slower rate than the p-norms of the truncations. it might be that f(n) = n won't work for a given choice of c
 
ah so you mean $f(n)=log(n)$ maybe?
 
thanks Leslie. I just wanted to confirm. Actually, the proof of the theorem does use the fact that $E$ is Lebesgue measurable.
so yes, E must be measurable and there's no reason to believe the statement to be true for non measurable sets.
@user193319 look at the diagram and think of d as $\vec n.\vec r_0$
 
Ah, so points in the plane are of the form $r-r_0$ (rather the vector representing them)...right?
 
4:16 PM
over: yeah, i'm thinking some mixture of powers and logs is how you construct such a c in the first place, so maybe you need an f(n) like that.
 
Hi! Is there a way to start infinite sum from 'last term' (smallest) and go to the first? This probably not properly defined as the sum is infinite.
I want to count x^(2n)/(n!) from last to first.
 
yeah, it isn't. there's no 'last term'. you can rearrange the sum as much as you want, but whatever you move to first place won't have been the 'last'
 
yeah
 
thankfully that'll converge to the same thing, no matter what x is or how you rearrange it
 
"thankfully"🙃
 
4:30 PM
i like calm things
 
I think that's the main drive of all living things
 
@user193319 No. definitely not. But what vectors is the normal orthogonal to?
 
 
1 hour later…
5:58 PM
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4543746/how-do-i-show-that-a-closed-subset-k-subset-cal-lp-is-compact

Could maybe someone help me here?
 
Norms ought to be typeset using either \| or \Vert (or, if you are really anal, \lVert and \rVert).
 
@Overtherainbow
I gave an example of a set that satisfies the conditions but is not compact.
Meaning the result you are trying to prove is not true.
 
@copper.hat maybe I missread the task wrong. so this is my task:
And as I understood this in a) it should be proven or do I need to assume a) and b)?@copper.hat
 
6:15 PM
Of course you need to assume a) and b).
 
ah I thought a) is one task and b) is another
 
@Overtherainbow Condition (b) in some sense reduces the problem to a finite dimentional case.
 
Whoa. You need to learn to read better. Seriously.
They would need to write it as two separate problems or else say "assume just one of the following holds" or "assume either a) or b) holds."
 
@TedShifrin sorry my mistake. No normally if we have multiple assumptions we do not list them as we list subexercise!
@TedShifrin okey I agree sorry
 
I don't know what universe you're in, @overthe.
If I say assume a), b) or assume a) and b) it's equivalent.
 
6:19 PM
@si-LV-er_and_b-LA-ck I read sometimes!
Oh, sorry. I read too quickly and missed the middle words!
Aw...
 
okey so but I can still use my approach with the subsequences?
 
Actually, one of the hardest issues for beginning math students is the language/reading/interpretation. But overtherainbow is not taking beginning-level mathematics!
It is a metric space, so all definitions of compactness are equivalent.
 
@TedShifrin Yes sorry I know it's my mistake. We are all humans I think.
 
@Overtherainbow Use (b) to show that any sequence has a convergent subsequence.
 
There are much bigger problems in the world as a guy who reads the exercise in the wrong way. nevertheless @copper.hat showed me now a nice counterexample which I would not came across otherwise
 
6:22 PM
Anything new can be difficult.
 
@Overtherainbow when you have been around enough you see all the usual counterexamples. and forget them repeatedly.
 
@Overtherainbow It's the same example to show the unit sphere in infinite-dimensional Hilbert space is non-compact.
 
that's a reflexive answer
 
My reflexes are slow.
 
6:24 PM
:-). mine reflexes are still good, but when i react i hurt myself.
 
well, copper, that's a skill you seem to be refining.
 
it is certainly becoming easier
i am stuck looking for an open cover sort of proof for @Overtherainbow's puzzle.
 
@copper.hat isn't it easier to show that every sequence has a convergent subsequence in K?
 
Take $\epsilon$-balls around the ball of radius $M$ in $\Bbb R^{N-1}$ (where $M$ is the uniform bound) or something.
 
@Overtherainbow yep, but i have some preferences in styles of proofs, sequence proofs are quick but unsatisfactory for me :-)
 
6:29 PM
@copper.hat ah okey I see no for me they are still hard in functional analysis
 
Well, of course, what I said isn't meaningful since we have to start with an arbitrary open covering to achieve your goal. But maybe I can reduce with this idea to the ball in $\Bbb R^{N-1}$.
Indeed, $K$ is contained in the set I gave. So if we show that set is compact, then $K$ is compact.
 
I know linear algebra, but, can someone recommend me a book from linear algebra for someone like me?
 
but is it true that it I take a sequence in K then it is like a sequence of sequences?
 
@Jakobian what is your focus?
 
@Overtherainbow Precisely.
 
6:38 PM
@copper.hat I haven't thought about that yet... deeper understanding?
 
Probably not what you are looking for, but I found Golub & Van Loan's Matrix Computations useful. But that was for numerical work.
At some point much of my life involved SVDs of some sort.
Thankfully antibiotics came to the rescue.
jk
 
@TedShifrin do I really need to construct a subsequence?
 
I don't see why not.
@copper.hat double smacks
 
:-)
 
@Jakobian I don't pay enough attention to know exactly what you know and what you don't. I doubt you're interested in numerical linear algebra, but other than that I can't guess what you are trying to understand more deeply. Canonical forms? Multilinear algebra? shrug
 
6:44 PM
@TedShifrin Could you maybe give me a hint how one normally start in such cases because this is really new for me?
 
I studied multilinear algebra before, I briefly looked at things like Grassman manifold
But I thought there is some part of linear algebra that evades me
 
Suppose that $E\subset X$, then there exists a set $F\subset S(A)$, the sigma algebra generated by algebra such that $\mu^*(E)=\mu^*(F)$ and $\color{blue} \mu^*(F\setminus E)=0$.
,where $\mu$ is assumed to be sigma finite.
I don't understand how to prove the blue colored part. In fact, I think that the blue colored part is false.
 
@Koro It follows from the definition of outer measure.
 
the first part does follow from the outer measure but why does the second part follow?
$F=F\setminus E \cup E\implies \mu^*(F)\le \mu^*(F\setminus E)+\mu^*(E)$
 
I think my earlier comments might give some intuition. You have to focus on condition b). I think it's even worse, because you really want to take another sequence with $\epsilon_n = 1/n$ and associated $N_n$, I suspect. Ultimately, I think working with sequences and sequences of sequences of sequences is going to be awkward. But I'm sure there's a slick way to do it.
 
6:51 PM
Because the $\inf$ lets you construct a sequence of measurable $F_n$ that contain $E$ and $\mu^* F_n \downarrow \mu^* E$.
 
Even if $\mu^*(E)$ is finite, I only get $\mu^*(F\setminus E)\ge 0$
 
Note that $F_1 \cap \cdots \cap F_n$ also contains $E$
 
@Jakobian I can't mindread. I would think that you'd be interested in representation theory and the interplay of group theory and linear algebra. That's a whole different thing from just a book on linear algebra.
 
Oh no, I don't want to learn that at all
Algebra is something that I don't plan into going
I guess I'm looking for... solid foundations and more?
 
So there's tons of linear algebra sitting around in functional analysis. Surely you're adept at that.
 
6:54 PM
Copper: Let me construct such sequences and show what the problem is actually.
 
Simultaneous triangularization/diagonalization is an important topic.
 
The only linear algebra I had, was from courses in linear algebra at university. Studying it right now, I'll have a mature look on things
 
(which is also explained in Hoffman and Kunze's linear algebra)
 
@TedShifrin ah okey so you would not do it using sequences?
 
You must know some European texts that I don't. The standard more advanced texts I recommend in the US are Artin's Algebra book and Friedberg/Insel/Spence. If you know module theory, Artin is good for using the module theory to do canonical forms in efficient and conceptually clear fashion.
@overthe Offhand, I wouldn't, but I haven't thought about such things in 20 years.
 
6:57 PM
@TedShifrin okey
 
You need to think clearly about what condition b) means.
 
Given $E$. Fix n , there exist $E_n$ (in algebra A) such that $E\subset E_n$ and $\sum_n\mu^* E_n\le \mu^*E+\frac 1n$. I claim that $F:=\cap_n E_n$ does the job.
@copper.hat
 
@Koro sorry, there are too many undefined terms there.
 
Clearly, F contains E. And clearly, $\mu^*E\le \mu^*F$ by monotonicity. ETS the reverse inequality. For any n, $\mu^*F\le \mu^*E_n\le \sum_n \mu^* E_n\le \mu^*E+\frac 1n$.
 
I sure hope Koro gets out of this measure theory class fast.
 
7:02 PM
@TedShifrin wouldn't this mean in some sence that the components of the sequence x^(n) with index greater than N can be bounded
 
Ted: only about 2 months left. :-)
The symbols are as here:
16 mins ago, by Koro
Suppose that $E\subset X$, then there exists a set $F\subset S(A)$, the sigma algebra generated by algebra such that $\mu^*(E)=\mu^*(F)$ and $\color{blue} \mu^*(F\setminus E)=0$.
 
@Koro i am not following all the terms above, but suppose the space has finite measure first. then there are measurable $D_n, F_n$ such that $D_n \subset E \subset F_n$ and $\mu^* (F_n \setminus D_n) \to 0$.
 
A:= algebra on set X.
S(A):= the sigma algebra generated by A (i.e., the intersection of all sigma algebras on X, which contain A).
 
Better than bounded ... $p$-norm very small. The problem is that the $N$ depends on $\epsilon$. But I suggest you think about fixing an $\epsilon$ and corresponding $N$. If you look at a closed ball of fixed radius in $\Bbb R^{N-1}$ and require that $\sum_{i\ge N} |x_i|^p \le \epsilon$, is that a compact space?
 
7:06 PM
@Koro you dealt with the result in my last comment fairly recently.
 
The definition that I am using. $\mu^* (E)=\inf (\sum_n \mu E_n: E\subset \cup_n E_n, E_n\in A\}$.
 
What’s a good lin ALG book to learn?
 
@Shinrin-Yoku That's far too vague a question.
 
I haven't read everything of your statement but why do the ball needs to be in $\Bbb{R}^{N-1}$? How do you get to this dimension? @TedShifrin
 
What is your level? What are you trying to learn? Computations? Proofs? Both?
I got there from b), @overthe.
If you project points of your $K$ into $\Bbb R^{N-1}$, you know first of all that you always land in a closed ball of radius $M$ (that's from a)) and that the orthogonal part that's left over has norm less than $\epsilon^{1/p}$ or something.
 
7:11 PM
@copper.hat I'll think about this one. It looks like regularity. I'm not sure about $D_n$'s here though.
 
@Koro Yep, it is regularity.
Always a good thing I can tell you from this side of the age continuum.
 
@Jakobian I know nothing about the author or the book.
 
:-)
thanks copper. :-)
 
@TedShifrin sorry so I see that I need to land in a closes ball where the radius M is the sup from point a) but I still to not see the dimension N-1
 
I could post how the book I am reading proves this statement but you may not like the proof as it uses lot of symbols.
 
7:13 PM
The $N$ is coming from part b), overthe.
You definitely need to get it down to a finite-dimensional situation with "some error."
 
So you ignore the terms i\geq N since they get really small?
that's why you get N-1 as dimension?
 
I'm only ignoring them to get the closed ball in finite dimensions. You still have to work with them. I have not thought through a proof.
 
okey but as I understand it we are speaking about an approach over finite convers?
 
Maybe @copper has a suggestion.
 
eh... whatever. My book on Banach spaces has a chapter about finite dimensional vector spaces I guess...
 
7:18 PM
i'm pretending to have lunch while i frantically try to solve the problem.
 
But is this like an easy problem or a harder one for functional analysis?
 
it is straightforward.
 
using covers or sequences?
 
sequences
 
I want to prove the statement with tools available till this chapter that I'm studying. So let me give a sketch of the proof in the book and say exactly which parts bother me:-
1) $E=\cup_n E_n$, a disjoint union such that $\mu^* E_j<\infty$ for all $n$. This can be done as $\mu$ is sigma finite (given).
2) Finding sets $F_j\in S(A), E_j\subset F_j$ and $\mu^* E_j=\mu^* F_j$ for every $j$.
3) Take any $G\in S(A)$ such that $G\subset F_j- E_j$ (this can be done as $G$ can be empty set also, which is the sigma algebra) and show that $\mu^*G=0$.
 
7:20 PM
i can't figure out a cover approach
 
I don't understand step $(4)$.
 
I don't understand what 3) is about
 
(3) shows that every element of the sigma algebra that lies in $F_j- E_j$ is of outer measure $0$.
 
really okey... (so in this case I will try to do the sequence stuff first, as I wanted to). So I have the following in the moment:
If I take x^(n) a sequence in K then I know from
a) that ||x^(n)||_p<\infty
b) if I fix n then for all epsilon there exists n such that \sum_{k\geq N} |x^(n)_k|^p<\epsilon.

But now I need to find a convergent subsequence. Then using that K is closed I can conclude that the limit is in K and hence K is compact. but the problem is this subsequence.
So I see that Using b) I can somehow split up the sum in a) and get that (\sum_{k=1}^N |x^(n)_k|^p+\epsilon)^(1/p)<\
 
It's like saying if every measurable subset of measurable set S is of measure 0 then S has measure 0.
 
7:25 PM
i understand, i mean i don't see how it leads to a proof
 
You've got your quantifiers/letters all mixed up in your statement b), don't you?
 
You mean how (4) follows from (3)? I don't know that :(.
Taking the steps above as granted, $F-E\subset \cup_k (F_k- E_k)$ whence $\mu^*(F-E)\le 0$.
 
@TedShifrin you mean it should be there exists N such that...
@copper.hat I'm confused, so it is not straight forward?
 
7:39 PM
So, I found another cache of my father's documents, including some typewritten notes he used to introduce himself to students. It seems that he went to high school with Ted Danson. :/
 
greetings fellow youths, i went to high school with ted danson. ted danson. cheers? anybody? aaaaaanybody? ok, one person. yes, okay, nick at nite did help with this.
i don't mean to be mean. now, the youths might know him from 'the good place.'
ted went to high school with pythagoras.
6
 
Really, @leslie? I just realized I went to junior high in El Cerrito with one of the most famous chefs in America. I remembered the name, but didn't realize it is the same fellow.
I went to high school with some very famous people, too, actually. Famous in a restricted world, I suppose.
 
i was just shaking up the chat until someone responded to me. guy fieri?
nobody famous at my high school.
ok, my hs has one graduate that i would consider famous. but 20 years before my time.
 
7:55 PM
Guy Fieri is a charlatan. No, a quality chef. Jonathan Waxman.
2
 
0
Q: Proving that there exists a set $F\subset S(A)$, such that $\mu^*(E)=\mu^*(F)$ and $\color{blue} \mu^*(F\setminus E)=0$.

KoroNotations: $X$ is a given set. $A$ is an algebra given on $X$. $S(A):=$ the sigma algebra generated by $A$. $\mu: A\to [0,\infty]$ is a $\sigma-$ finite measure (some people call it pre-measure). For brevity, often times $\mu^*S:=\mu^*(S)$ or $\mu S=\mu^* S$. The following theorem is to be prove...

 
If you ever heard of March of the Falsettos and various other popular play/operas, they were written by William Finn, who was a high school classmate. Also one of the most famous gay porn stars ever.
Not him ... another classmate.
 
KRM hasn't posted any answers in a long time now. I hope he's fine and healthy.
 
Who's KRM?
I don't recognize that at all.
 
Professor Kavi Rama Murthy
 
8:01 PM
Oh, he over-answers like crazy. He drives me nuts.
Too much of a rep hog.
Jose Santos is another one.
 
hope he is OK and will be back over-answering soon.
 
Looks like his last answer was Jun 3. That is a hiatus!
 
8:18 PM
yeah
 
8:42 PM
@Overtherainbow are you familiar with the metric space characterisation of compactness (as in complete and totally bounded, like)?
 
@leslietownes Ted Danson is a national treasure, and I will not hear you besmirch his name. :(
 
@copper.hat so i know that cover compact is equivalent to seq. compact is equivalent to complete and totally bounded
 
But your Steve Buscemi impersonation is quite good.
 
xander: smirch
 
@Overtherainbow I'll add an answer to your question.
 
8:48 PM
@copper.hat okey
 
It seems the involute of a circle has zero tangent vector $(r\theta\cos\theta, r\theta\sin\theta)$ at $\theta=0$. Is this a parametrization issue?
 
@Overtherainbow I added a proof.
 
Here the parametrization I removed above $
(r\cos\theta + r\theta \sin\theta, r\sin\theta - r\theta \cos\theta)
$
 
@copper.hat thanks I saw it. I will ask smething as a comment so that everyone can read it.
 
9:11 PM
how do i find my saved, no bookmarked pages?
@Overtherainbow you ok with the proof?
 
@copper.hat I think more or less but I will look at it again tomorrow if it's okey
 
you can turn that answer into a sequence proof, but that is the essence i think.
 
@copper.hat okey perfect
 
ping me if you have questions. i will get to them eventually :-)
 
I will do it thanks a lot!
 
9:22 PM
i owe @Koro an elaboration.
 
Did Koro helped you or what?
 
different question, i meant that is what i am looking at now :-)
 
9:39 PM
@Feynman_00 $r$ is constant here — it's the radius of the circle.
@copper That's the first time I've ever encountered an $\epsilon$ net. Non-standard terminology for sure.
 
@TedShifrin Kobayashi was the first time I heard the term.
 
In a functional analysis course? I've never encountered it, as I said.
Because of the "other" use of nets in analysis, it might be confuzling.
 
It was in the context of totally bounded. It was M202A (functional analysis).
 
202a was just first semester analysis. what pervert was teaching it where they put FA in there?
 
Brian M. Scott answered the same question about 6 years ago. I don't think I'm the only one who's not heard of it.
I doubt it was really functional analysis, @leslie. That had a different number ;)
 
9:53 PM
the low twos were haunted with functional analysis. bill put it into 202b when he taught that.
 
But it does seem particularly confusing since one might use nets to prove whatever in this context.
 
i had Chernoff for B. he was more volatile.
 
i really liked chernoff. but yes he was unstable.
 
When I was there, 202A was quick point-set topology and the beginnings of graduate real analysis (measure and integration).
 
202a in my year started with the lp spaces, stone w, krein milman, that sort of stuff.
202b was measure and applications in functional analysis (mostly)
i think they, along with a class taught by hald, were the most enjoyable classes i took at berkeley
 
10:02 PM
I never took that stuff, cuz I had had it (poorly, admittedly) as an undergrad at MIT.
I started with algebraic topology, differentiable manifolds and Riemannian geometry, and some differential topology and Riemann surfaces ... algebraic geometry second and third years along with lots of other stuff.
 
i regret not having any formal manifolds or algebra (as in the hungerford games variety)
i kept getting pushed forward
 
I skipped algebra and analysis. But I learned some functional analysis doing seminars on unbounded differential operators in the context of geometry.
 
the value of instruction for me was seeing what was focused on. i found that hard to glean from books/papers.
 
Sure. But my graduate analysis experience had been my worst experience with the worst teacher, so I was inclined to learn interesting stuff in interesting contexts.
I totally forget who was teaching 202ABC (quarters) my first year at Berkeley.
But I took my analysis qual (real and complex) first quarter and passed quite well.
 
the ee quals were essentially the defense and (back then at least) typically taken shortly before writing thesis. we had prelims in the first year, but they were mostly undergrad stuff and pointless.
 
10:17 PM
Yeah, the math dept changed from three oral prelims (one hour each) on first-year material to a written prelim + advanced oral. I was involved in arguing for the change — despite the fact that I loved the three one-hour orals, many of my classmates turned into nervous/drunk wrecks from that pressure. I think the fact that I had a lot of teaching experience as an undergrad made it a piece of cake for me.
 
people still failed the written prelim when i was there, for lack of taking it seriously. usually people from the better schools ("what, you want me to actually diagonalize a matrix?")
 
Yeah, but the written prelims were a lot more predictable than an oral with a random 2- or 3-person committee with only a page-long syllabus :)
 
my research advisor (to be at the time) ctook off his shoes and clipped his toenails when i was taking my oral prelim from him (it was control system stuff).
 
people who failed to take the written prelim seriously usually passed immediately on the second attempt, with a small number of exceptions (usually not from the best schools)
 
I had fun on the orals. Chern and Satake were my algebra examiners, and while we were waiting to start, I shared with them a question I couldn't do. Neither could they. For topology/geometry, my committee was Wu and Kirby, and they spent over half the exam on stuff not on the syllabus, having decided that I was clearly passing ...
 
10:20 PM
i would not want wu on my committee.
 
i had pugh on my quals committee. super easy to work with.
 
He asked me a rather esoteric question at the end — to prove that any manifold with a connection its tangent bundle has to be paracompact. Totally stupid. My answer was that all manifolds are paracompact. Anyhow ... he asked reasonable stuff earlier.
 
i have a handwritten proof of the rademacher theorem that he did for me
@TedShifrin was he testing you or just off in space?
 
Oh, I wrote up that proof when I was in his 219 dynamical systems course. I still had a copy of the typed-up version he gave the class ... until I burned my office when I retired.
 
:-)
 
10:23 PM
you were right, all manifolds are paracompact.
 
He wanted to see if I knew something truly esoteric (it's in an appendix of one of the chapters of Spivak's geometry volumes, for example).
Kirby had already asked me to outline the Thom-Pontryagin construction, which is beautiful mathematics that I had not studied (and was not on the syllabus). So he gave me an outline of steps and I did it for him. That was great.
 
my outside member asked a bunch of questions, and i wanted to tell him "you realize the outside member is not supposed to ask real questions, right?"
 
But that sort of differential topology was way off the syllabus.
I had the external person on the analysis exam. He didn't say anything that I remember. On my thesis committee, I had to have an external person, too. I think I told you I stuck an old family friend from the political science department on it. I gave him an hour lecture in his office to give him some idea of what my thesis was about :)
 
there was a fellow named kahan who used to cause some heartache in quals.
he was mild compared to my own fellow
a bit sad that the main lesson i learned was not to be intimidated.
 
my outside member was a physics guy who asked "what if that's unbounded" "how much of that works if it's unbounded" just shut up and go away
 
10:28 PM
That's not an unfair/uninteresting question.
You are allowed to say, "I don't know."
 
i learned a lot from a (the) ceo i hired (we did not get along). her perspective in presentations and the like was to give them something to say no to early on.
 
i was able to do some of my stuff in the unbounded case.
 
I don't think learning not to be intimidated is a bad thing, copper. :)
 
i agree, but i was hoping for more :-)
thankfully both of my offspring seem to be fairly good in that regard, despite my helicoptering
time will tell
 
Well, I need to go for a walk. Have a good rest of the afternoon.
 
10:31 PM
enjoy!
 
cheers
 
i'm of to the pool a few hours ago, wow look at the time
 
I'm surprised Munchkin hasn't teleported leslie to the pool.
 
pool time is 6:15, 6:30. we'll get there.
 
enjoy the time while you have some (putative) control
 
10:33 PM
Wow. That's late.
 

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