Because $n$ is even and $a_n$ is positive, $p(x)\geq 0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$. Well, that means that $p[\mathbb{R}]$ has a lower bound, $0$. As $p[\mathbb{R}]\subset \mathbb{R}$, there exists $\inf{(p[\mathbb{R}])}\in\mathbb{R}$, which we'll call $M=\inf{(p[\mathbb{R}])}$. From now I think I might use TVI to prove that there exists a $x_0\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $p(x_0)=M$, and because $M$ is infimum, then $p(x_0)\leq p(x)$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ as desired.
Is this the way?