« first day (3761 days earlier)      last day (1246 days later) » 
00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

12:12 AM
@robjohn I believe with the derivative under the integral sign, with the symmetry the combined integrand becomes dead $0$.
 
@TedShifrin I seem to be stuck on your integral.
 
LOL ... why?
 
@TedShifrin yes, it does. The log shows that the integral equals its negative.
@MikeMiller The integral with the $1+\tan^n(\theta)$ in the denominator?
 
Yeah, I didn't see what to set up as my parameter in a useful way. I've never actually done these differentiation under the integral sign tricks.
 
Well, but that could happen without the integrand's being dead 0, robjohn.
Replace $\pi$ with a parameter.
 
12:27 AM
Yeah, I did. I guess I'm being klutzy.
 
@TedShifrin perhaps I don't quite understand the meaning of "dead $0$"
 
The integrand is pointwise $0$ is stronger than having integral $9$.
 
@TedShifrin You mean take the indefinite integral of $\frac1{1+\tan^n(\theta)}$?
 
No, I mean after diff under integral and using the symmetry.
 
Yeah, that is what I meant by the log from the $\theta$ cancelling the log from the $\frac\pi2-\theta$
 
12:30 AM
The logs cancel but the multipliers of the logs are equal . Yes.
I had forgotten how that works out.
 
1:18 AM
@TedShifrin That is some of the beauty of analysis :-)
 
1:28 AM
Question: If a compact, self-adjoint operator on a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ exists, does that mean that an orthonormal basis of $\mathcal{H}$ consisting of real valued eigenvectors has to exist, via the spectral theorem on Hilbert spaces?
 
1:40 AM
Hello everyone.

I have $p(x)=a_n x^n + a_{n-1} + \cdots + a_1 x + a_0$, which is a polynomial with real coefficients such that $n$ is even and $a_n$ is positive. I need to show that this polynomial reach its minimum in some real value, that is, that there exists a $x_0$ such that $p(x_0)\leq p(x)$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$.
Any hints on how to proceed?
I feel that I'll be using IVT but I'm not sure where
 
1. Can you show that local minima exist? 2. Can you show that $p(x)$ diverges to $+\infty$ as $x\rightarrow\pm\infty$?
 
The only tools I have so far are continuity, sequences of real numbers and some topological notions in $\mathbb{R}$
Continuity defined with $\varepsilon-\delta$, not with $\lim{p(x)}_{x\to a}$
 
Schools closed in NYC today
City hit 3% infection rate, that was the threshold
 
I think the nation might be hitting the second wave
 
The nation's in the middle of a third wave
But NYC's just beginning a second wave
 
1:51 AM
wait, the first wave ended?
 
2103480 has a point
 
to bring some more opinion diversity on that
 
There were people pointing to a "second wave," but I always interpreted it as just aftershocks from the first wave
 
The US definitely had two humps in its cases graph, though the valleys weren't particularly low
Thankfully NYS had a long stretch of <1% infection rate after the apocalypse in April
In any case. No school, starting today
Rithaniel, you're in NJ, right? Or am I misremembering
 
SC
Clemson University
 
1:58 AM
Oh
 
Not the highest place of math education, but also not the worst
 
What is the feeling in the US for a new lockdown?
 
I say we should never have left the first lockdown, but people just needed those haircuts, apparently
And the government was being stupid about funding people
 
Lol. I need a haircut also. My gf is cutting my hair and it's horrible. But I'm really afraid of going to the hair salon
 
I've heard horror stories coming from the Dakotas
Surprised it's managed to penetrate a region so sparse
I haven't cut my hair since Feb. btw
I think I like it long lol
Occasionally trimmed my beard
 
2:08 AM
I shave my head, but let my beard grow. It got really long before I just took some scissors to it.
Also, yeah, if it's hitting low density areas, you know it's contagious
 
I think SD is at a rate higher than NY was at its peak (7-8 months ago)
according to Johns Hopkins numbers
Dunno how the hell that happened
Here in NYC you can predict the infection rate of a neighborhood by how they vote
 
How sad. What scary me the most is what comes next all of this, all that I read are bad news, social and economic crisis
theatlantic.com/magazine/archive/2020/12/… an interesting article if you guys have the time
3
 
Oh that's delightful, when political affiliation results in disregard for personal safety
 
(I don't know how The Atlantic is perceived in the US, so...)
 
I mean, why did one party decide to downplay the disease? What is the motivation in that? What do they gain?
 
2:26 AM
Concerning the problem I posted, I think I have a solution.
Because $n$ is even and $a_n$ is positive, $p(x)\geq 0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$. Well, that means that $p[\mathbb{R}]$ has a lower bound, $0$. As $p[\mathbb{R}]\subset \mathbb{R}$, there exists $\inf{(p[\mathbb{R}])}\in\mathbb{R}$, which we'll call $M=\inf{(p[\mathbb{R}])}$. From now I think I might use TVI to prove that there exists a $x_0\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $p(x_0)=M$, and because $M$ is infimum, then $p(x_0)\leq p(x)$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ as desired.

Is this the way?
 
I disagree with $p(x)\ge0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$
think of some quadratics
but you can show that there is a lower bound and that will indeed be a way to arrive at the conclusion
 
@Thorgott Ok, thanks!
 
 
1 hour later…
3:32 AM
I realized I don't fully buy this. I believe your argument is "if $E/\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ is algebraic, then $E/\mathbb{Q}$ is algebraic, so $E\subseteq\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ since $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ contains all numbers algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$ by definition", but that only works if $E\subseteq\mathbb{C}$ to begin with.
Why can this be assumed WLOG? Of course, we can appeal to the FTA and Steinitz and then it's immediate, but that just shifts the work to proving an arguably even harder theorem.
Though, on the other hand, I can't think of a proof of $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ being algebraically closed that doesn't implicitly rely on $\mathbb{C}$ being algebraically closed, so perhaps I'm just being unreasonable
I mean, $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ is defined within $\mathbb{C}$, so seems hard to say too much about the former without appealing to the latter
 
3:51 AM
@Thorgott we do need $\Bbb C$ to be algebraically closed
 
4:39 AM
Hello
 
 
2 hours later…
6:26 AM
What do I get if I complete a polynomial ring? rofl e.g. $\widehat{K[t, t^{-1}]}$
 
Is resultants the only way to do intersection numbers? It seems so tedious
 
Still on AlgGeo?
 
Yeah man, I have the endterms next week, and I do not understand Intersection numbers
 
:56209252 $K((t))$
 
What is the algebraic closure of a finite field F_q?
 
6:37 AM
$\widehat{\Bbb Z}$
err
that's the Galois group lol
 
Professor said that it's the union of all finite subfields
Why is that?
 
Well over $\Bbb{Z}_p$ you have polynomials of the form $x^{p^n} - x$, and the splitting field of theses polynomials give you $F_{p^n}$, so all these guys have to be there in the closure. So the union of these guys is there in your closure. I do not know how to show this union is the algebraic closure
 
I think you take $\varinjlim \Bbb F_{p^n}$ with the $\Bbb F_{p^n}$ ordered by divisibility
 
Yeah that ^
 
I can't remember the deets
 
6:47 AM
I don't know varinjlim
haven't learn that
I google this problem and many says that it's a union of all finite field
But professor said it's a union of all finite subfield
I'm confused
 
Every finite field of characteristic $p$ is $\Bbb F_{p^n}$ for some $n \in \Bbb N$
 
Yea
Algebraic closure of F_p is F_p?
 
No it's $\overline{\Bbb F_p} = \bigcup_{n \in \Bbb N} \Bbb F_{p^n}$ as your prof said
 
That's what professor said? he said the union of all finite 'subfield'
isn't that mean it's a subfield of F_p?
 
$\Bbb F_p$ is the prime field of characteristic $p$, there aren't really any subfields of $\Bbb F_p$
 
7:02 AM
Ok I what is the meaning of 'the union of all finite subfield'? I don't know why this is equivalent to \overline{\Bbb F_p} = \bigcup_{n \in \Bbb N} \Bbb F_{p^n} for the case F_p
 
can you use $ signs around your latex
your prof probably just means the union of all finite char p fields, that's literally what the algebraic closure is
 
Ok. Then the algebraic closure of $\Bbb F_{p^n}$ is $\bigcup_{n\in\Bbb N}\Bbb F_{p^n}$?
same as $\Bbb F_p$?
This is equivalent to saying that $\bigcup_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \mathbb{F}_{p^{n!}}$ right?
 
yes, for every $n \in \Bbb N$ there is a finite field with $p^n$ elements, these are all the splitting fields of polynomials over finite fields, so just stuff them all together I guess
 
I think the above expression makes easier to prove
 
what why
 
7:17 AM
maybe inclusion relation between them?
But I just notice that
Doesn't change that much
 
$\Bbb F_{p^3}$ isn't in that union
 
But contained in $\Bbb F_{p^3!}$
 
lol yeah you're right
i gotta go, lectures call, just look up the proof, it's essentially stuffing all the splitting fields of polynomials over finite fields together
 
in the proof, why the consider $f\in U[x]$?
Only need to show $f\in \Bbb F_q[x]$ splits in $U$
 
@EdwardEvans complete wrt what
 
7:31 AM
@EdwardEvans I don't understand why $U\subset\Bbb F_q$ since $\Bbb F_{q^n}$ is a subset of $\overline{\Bbb F_p}$.
I mean the red part
I think the red part is not necessary
 
I think you misread
 
Why is that?
 
it says U is a subset of F_q-bar
 
@Leaky I'm not really sure tbh, $K$ is a complete valued field, maybe a topology inherited from $K$?
 
7:47 AM
I think if you take the topology that has $t^n K[t]$ as a neighbourhood basis of $0$ then you do get $K((t))$
 
Yes but I don't know why the red part is necessary. What does it show?
 
I'm playing with $\bigoplus_{i \in \Bbb Z}\Bbb C_K(i)$ where $K$ is a p-adic field and $\Bbb C_K(i)$ is $\Bbb C_K \otimes_{\Bbb Z_p} \Bbb Z_p(i)$ and $\Bbb Z_p(i)$ is some twist of $\Bbb Z_p$ by the cyclotomic character, and this dude can be identified with $\Bbb C_K[t, t^{-1}]$ rofl
and I'm trying to prove that the $\operatorname{Gal}(\overline{K}/K)$ invariants of that guy and it's field of fractions are both $K$ and the tip is to embed it into the field of formal Laurent series over $\Bbb C_K$, but idk why I can do that
$\operatorname{Quot}(\Bbb C_K[t, t^{-1}]) = \Bbb C_K(t)$ and then complete that wrt the topology you mentioned up there I guess
 
8:13 AM
How can I prove $|(\Bbb F_q)^2| = \frac{|\Bbb F_q|+1}{2}$ where $(\Bbb F_q)^2 = \{x^2:x\in \Bbb f_q\}$
 
use the fact that squaring is a 2-1 map on the units
 
Oh that's amazing
Does it hold for any characteristic field?
I mean for any prime p?
 
Hello
 
I think for only odd p
 
you all know about Goldbach's conjecture
for every even integer $n$ greater than 2, there exists an ordered pair $(p_x,p_y)$ where $p_x$ and $p_y$ are odd primes such that $p_x+p_y=n$
I want to share some of my ideas. Can I?
First consider all pairs $(x,y)$ such that $x$ and $y$ are odd integers such that $x+y=n$
And now consider pairs $(u,v)$ where $u$ and $v$ are odd integers divisible by an integer $>2$ and $u+v=n$
if for all odd integer $n$ we have $$o(x,y)>o(u,v)$$ where $o(x,y)$ is the number of pairs $(x,y)$ and $o(u,v)$ is the number of pairs $(u,v)$ then Goldbach's conjecture is true.
The next step is to count all pairs (u, v) where u + v = n and either u is not prime or v is not prime. To do this, we must find all pairs where the x or y coordinate is divisible by 3 but $x \neq 3$ and $y \neq 3$. Then find all pairs where x or y is divisible by 5, then 7, then 11 etc. until we reach a prime number p, such that there are no pairs divisible by p.
Then we sum up all the non-prime pairs. If for all even integers n, the total of non-prime pairs is less than the total number of pairs, then we have proven Goldbach’s conjecture
you people following what I am saying?
now we can analyze the cases but lol I don't know what it leads to
I just shared my ideas :)
 
9:07 AM
Is there anyone know the latex code of this kind of thing?
 
\begin{cases} \end{cases}
$$A = \begin{cases}1\ \text{if}\ n\ \text{odd}\\ 0\ \text{if}\ n\ \text{even} \end{cases}$$
 
I have a problem
$\Bbb F_q = \{0,1,\alpha,\alpha^2,...,\alpha^{p^n-1}\}$ where $\alpha $is a generator of $(\Bbb F_q)^\times$. Hence the sum of all elements of a finite field $\Bbb F_q$ is $1+\Sigma_{m=1}^{p^n-1}\alpha^m = 1+\frac{\alpha(\alpha^{p^n-1}-1)}{\alpha-1} = 1$ as $\alpha^{p^n-1}= 1$
 
yes tell it
 
Assuming $q\neq p$
so $\alpha\neq 1$
But for $\Bbb F_4$, the sum of all element (0,1,\alpha,\alpha+1) is 0
My conclusion above is 1 for such thing
What's the problem?
 
@love_sodam you have too many elements here
 
9:19 AM
Too many?
 
count the number of elements in the $\Bbb F_q$ you wrote down above
 
OH
1 is already there
0
Q: Computation of $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}+\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}+\sqrt[p_3]{q_3}):\mathbb{Q}]$

love_sodam If $p_i,q_j$ for $1\leq i,j\leq 3$ are all distinct primes and $\alpha = \sqrt[p_1]{q_1}+\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}+\sqrt[p_3]{q_3}$, then what is a degree of $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$ over $\mathbb{Q}$? I think I need to use some Kummer extension or radical extension to solve this but I don't know how to appr...

Is there anyone can do this?
 
9:50 AM
Hi guys
and gals
 
123
Hi guys. Pls explain in complex number how these two sides of equality is different?
|z_1| - |z_2| <= | |z_1| - |z_2| |
 
10:10 AM
@EdwardEvans what does completion mean here
 
10:26 AM
@Alessandro I mean, we're completing fields wrt metric topologies and then defining rings related to these fields and then "completing them". They're not $I$-adic completions or something, so I'm just trying to work out what topology we're working with tbh
 
10:57 AM
@123 If $|z_1|\lt|z_2|$, then the left side is negative
 
11:16 AM
If $\varphi(n)\mid\varphi(m)$ then is there any relationship between $n,m$?
$\varphi$ is an euler-phi fucntion
 
Hello all, I have a question about accuracy of converting decimal to binary floating-point number, and to decimal. Please help if possible, thank you.

https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3914836/proof-of-accuracy-of-converting-decimal-to-binary-floating-point-number-to-decim
 
12:11 PM
@EdwardEvans get rekt
 
@EdwardEvans you're stepping into perfectoid space territory
 
well, we're doing p-adic Galois reps and going from Schneider's book, which replaces Fontaine's original methods with perfectoid methods from sChOlZe
 
I think $\Bbb Q(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}+\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}+\sqrt[p_3]{q_3}) = \Bbb Q(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1},\sqrt[p_2]{q_2},\sqrt[p_3]{q_3})$
 
12:33 PM
Edward, can you analytically continue $\big\{ k\zeta(s): k\in \Bbb N \big\}$ (so multiple copies, one for each $k$)
 
@BalarkaSen iNtErGaLaCtIc
 
Oh I think I solved that
 
Great!
 
12:51 PM
Oh
 
Hello everyone. Here https://math.stackexchange.com/a/693531/838368 Schunang says that

For any $\varepsilon>0$, there is a $N>0$ such that for all $\left|x\right|>N$ we have $\left| \sum_{k=0}^{2n} a_k x^{k-(2n+1)} \right|<\varepsilon$.

I don't get it, where is this from?
 
no there is a very serious error in my proof
 
hello
@AttractorNotStrangeAtAll you can ask in the comments
 
Oh, ok! Didn't know if that was alright because this is an answer from 2014
 
he will surely get it in the inbox
so no matter how old it is
can someone evaluate $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{k!}$$?
 
12:55 PM
Let $K = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}+\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}+\sqrt[p_3]{q_3})$. Then as $K\neq \mathbb{Q}$, $[K:\mathbb{Q}]\neq 1$. Since $K\subset\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1},\sqrt[p_2]{q_2},\sqrt[p_3]{q_3})$, $[K:\mathbb{Q}]\mid p_1p_2p_3$. WLOG, assume $p_1\mid [K:\mathbb{Q}]$.
 
$n$ being a natural number
 
Then $\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}\in K$ since if not, $[K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}):K]\neq 1$ as $x^{p_1}-q_1\in K[x]$ has $\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}$ as a root and $p_1$ is a prime, $[K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}):K] = p_1$ which is a contradiction as $K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1})\subset \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1},\sqrt[p_2]{q_2},\sqrt[p_3]{q_3})$ (Note that $p_1,p_2,p_3$ are distinct).
Now, suppose $\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}\notin K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1})$. Then, $[K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1})(\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}):K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1})]=p_2$ using the same argument before. But then, as $K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1})(\sqrt[p_2]{q_2}) = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1},\sqrt[p_2]{q_2},\sqrt[p_3]{q_3})$, $[K(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1}):\mathbb{Q}] = p_1p_3$. Hence, $\sqrt[p_3]{q_3}\in K$ which is a contradiction.
 
Is it some human based language y'all talking?
 
This was my proof but I think it's wrong
 
the answer is $$\frac{e\Gamma(n+1,1)}{\Gamma(n+1)}-1$$
but I dunno why
@RewCie math is like talking in a code language
like your dot chat
 
12:58 PM
What is $\Gamma (n+1, 1)$? Isn't $\Gamma: \mathbb R \rightarrow \mathbb R$
 
it is the incomplete gamma function
In mathematics, the upper and lower incomplete gamma functions are types of special functions which arise as solutions to various mathematical problems such as certain integrals. Their respective names stem from their integral definitions, which are defined similarly to the gamma function but with different or "incomplete" integral limits. The gamma function is defined as an integral from zero to infinity. This contrasts with the lower incomplete gamma function, which is defined as an integral from zero to a variable upper limit. Similarly, the upper incomplete gamma function is defined as ...
internet is not working well here
I am not good at evaluating partial sums
 
1:18 PM
Changed my proof
Could you check this?
I didn't use the fact that q_i's are distinct
 
Do I need to introduce myself here?
 
@feynhat lol
 
Imma computer science engineer. I can resolve any tech issue that you've ever encountered or any that exists in this universe ever. I have jacked into the Matrix all the times. I'm an IT God. Look upon me and despair.
 
Something must be wrong in there
 
 
1 hour later…
2:30 PM
Anyone happen to know of a good comparison series for n^2 / n^4-n-3
 
@RewCie okay cure my computer. It has memz trojan, cryptolocker ransomware, plugX malware and mydoom worm.
@KeithMadison is it $$\frac{n^2}{n^4-n^3}$$ or $$\frac{n^2}{n^4}-n^3$$
 
@RewCie I don't think I have seen anyone use the term "computer science engineer" before.
 
you should put brackets correctly
 
Is $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[p_1]{q_1},\sqrt[p_2]{q_2},\sqrt[p_3]{q_3}):\mathbb{Q}] = p_1p_2p_3$?
 
@epic_math the former, and thanks!
 
2:54 PM
so friends, I want to ask a question to all of you
what is the most complicated thing in math you know? (I did not write fields, I wrote thing, so note that)
The most complicated thing I know is a very hard proof of onw of ramanujan's formula
too long to even mention here
 
So by "thing" do you mean a proof, or?
 
anything
like a theorem, formula, proof or anything
(which you understand easily)
(and which is the most complicated you know)
 
Possibly that would be the proof that parabolic projective functors in type A are restrictions of projective functors
Though it might take me a bit if I needed to recall the full proof properly
 
okay
it should be complicated
what about others?
 
3:17 PM
Though it is not complicated, but I think it is a very tricky question: Is there a correct proof for 2 + 2 = 5?
But I think the proof is not much of a "math" kind. Answer: Interchange the symbols that represent the numbers four and five.
Symbols 4 and 5, namely.
 
3:30 PM
And, rest all math objects are the same.
 
it depends on how you define the numbers
if you define 5 as the thing that we usually call 4, then 2+2=5 is true, if you define 5 as the thing that we usually call 5, then 2+2=5 is false (all assuming 2 is defined as it usually is)
though nothing interesting is happening in either case
 
-2
Q: Is $\int 1 dx^{2}$ possible to solve?

Topkek4I think this integral, $\int 1 dx dx$, should be possible by a substitution I just do not know which to use.

 
should say that as $1$-forms on $\mathbb{R}$, $dx\wedge dx=0$, so the integral is $0$
for max confusion
 
3:46 PM
lol
 
If f: R_ -> (0,1) with f(x)=exp(x) then what is the product manifold (0,1)^3? I think I know the answer actually but i just want a second opinion
 
I have a very simple proof of PNT
which I made myself
here it is:
we know that $1+1=2$, which implies $e^{\pi i}+1=0$, from which it easily follows that the nontrivial zeroes of the zeta function have the real part of half, which in turn implies the abc conjecture is true. Now it is obvious that PNT is true from these statements.
can you find any flaw in my proof?
 
4:01 PM
That’s completely wrong
 
4:22 PM
@geocalc33 you can't follow my reasoning
This is why you're saying it
 
@geocalc33 It is mostly a waste of time to read what epic_math writes here
9
 
Lol
@TobiasKildetoft you are completely right
I will take it as a compliment :)
 
It was not meant as one
 
But I will still take it as one
It is getting stars quickly and one of them is mine
Lol my insult is being loved here
Hey I don't always talk waste
 
4:43 PM
@TobiasKildetoft That's why I use it!
@epic_math Take the plug out!
 
Is someone of you familiar with polynomial interpolation?
 
Also, never before heard anyone using any of those three words to describe themselves advertise that what they do well is "tech support"
I usually pretend to not be able to do anything remotely similar to tech support (except when the customer calls of course)
 
@TobiasKildetoft since I had to work in tech support, my respect for tech support grew immensely
 
Here is my question:
0
Q: Give an upper bound for the uniform error

Mary StarLet $f\in C^5(\mathbb{R})$, the $5$th derivative is bounded uniformly by $B$. Let the interpolation point be $(x_i)=(-2\ 1 \ 3 \ 4 \ 5)$. Give an upper bound for the uniform error of the polynomial interpolation by the unique polynomial of degree $4$ for $f$, for the interval $[-2,5]$. I have don...

 
So many quirky stupid details to remember
 
4:47 PM
@user2103480 Ohh, I have plenty of respect for people who do tech support well. I just try not to have to do it due to the terrible questions that tends to get asked
 
@TobiasKildetoft sadly, I was not among the people who did it well
due to the terrible questions
 
So I only do tech support for a system where it is not the primary thing, and where I have full access to all source codes and so on
 
@TobiasKildetoft one time, my bosses assigned me to help someone with a question about a program's professional/admin version. There was neither an FAQ nor had I access to the admin version.
 
Oh I forgot to tell you people that today is Benoit Mandelbrot's birthday.
 
@user2103480 ouch
 
4:49 PM
yeh
 
Okay bye
Don't insult me in my absence XD
 
bye, no worries!
 
Anyone alive during COVID
?
 
hopefully most after
 
There's no after
 
4:59 PM
hi chat
 
hi Astyx
 
For motivation: splitting short exact sequences are exactly the tool to show that a group can be decomposed as a sum of two others, right?
 
A different kind of a sum @user2103480. A semidirect product of the two others
 
Thanks!
 
if you work in any abelian category (so, in particular R-modules over a commutative ring R or abelian groups), then a SES is left split iff right split iff middle term is isomorphic to direct sum of outer terms
 
5:09 PM
@Thorgott no thanks
jk good to know
 
if you just work in the category of groups (which is not abelian), a SES right splits iff the middle term is a semi-direct product, as Sayan says, but i believe left splitting is still equivalent to being a genuine product
the remark about abelian categories is general nonsense, but it's a useful thing to know for modules
gets relevant when you study projective modules, for example
 
@Thorgott The last iff is not quite right
being isomorphic is not enough
 
I only care about what makes me understand my topology course hahaha
 
I should say the sequences are isomorphic
 
5:18 PM
ah right, the thing is that a left splitting allows you to define a nice map $C\rightarrow A\times B$, which makes the diagram commute, but a right splitting doesn't allow you to do the same thing as you would only get a map from the coproduct $A\ast B\rightarrow C$ instead, so it's a consequence of products in Grp not being biproducts
 
Right, the right splitting might not correspond to the inclusion of a normal subgroup
 
I should more often make vague statements about algebra
it seems to generate a lot of discussion
Has there been any more mochizuki drama btw? I love that
 
@Thorgott Oh I did not know this
 
5:49 PM
What does a direct product between O(1,1) and itself look like?
O(2,1)?
 
6:30 PM
tfw this (aimed at first-semesters) physics lecture spent one week defining vectors, operations on vectors and then differentiation rules and now it's suddenly doing Frenet theory
is this normal progression
 
idk but I still feel like that in current lectures
our spde lecture goes from 0 to "mild solutions" of stochastic navier stokes in 7 weeks, and before that introduces a stochastic integral that integrates stochastic processes with hilbert-schmidt operators as values in one lecture, hille-yosida and semigroup theory applied to pde in the next one, and the week after follows a 5-page proof of existence of solutions defined via semigroup generators and said stochastic integrals
I see WoW's Illidan before me, screaming "YOU ARE NOT PREPARED"
But I am more prepared to that than the computational neuroscience grad students I take another course with
 
@user2103480 accurate description
on the other hand, a mild case of masochism should be a requirement to sign up for an spde lecture
 
6:46 PM
There the same lecturer introduced in two lectures: fourier/laplace transforms, brownian motion, stochastic integrals, SDEs and their flow properties + the fokker-planck pde satisfied by the densities of some distributions (and the infinitesimal generator + its adjoint), stopping times and boundary value problems.

I really don't know how any of them manages to follow, they only had some maths prep course 2 months beforehand lmao
@Thorgott yeh. Problem is that I was lured in by all the cool general functional analysis generalization of the stochastic integral. It's super elegant
The PDE things, including pages of inequalities.... not so much
 
Something similar happened in my mechanics course. The instructor had mentioned that he was going to take a very mathematical route to Classical Mechanics, focusing on symplectic and Poisson Geometry. But being titled classical mechanics, many physics students took the course.
Initially it was smooth, but then he went full algebro-symplectic mode. And the last week was on Kontseivich's deformation quantisation
 
For the rest of it he wants to do, Scalar Field theory and some operad stuff. Let us see how that goes. I mean it is hard for me to fully follow, but he's good with stuff. But I really imagine the plight of the physics majors
 
@SayanChattopadhyay sounds crazy
@Thorgott yeah ... I checked and he covers about half of a book which written as a result of a two semester grad course... in half a semester, before christmas
fml
 
lmao
 
7:00 PM
I dont even see how any of this can have any physical application ever
 
I am really liking this categorical approach to physics, especially Classical Mech that he has taken. I would have never have thought of physics this way. The categorical approach really cleans up a lot of mess. For instance the entire mess of units in physics can be cleared by defining G-Torsors. There's the diffeological spaces stuff that cleans up a lot of infinite dimensional lie algebra stuff that physicists do.
 
From all I've seen, I'm pretty impressed by physicist's way of thinking, which doesn't seem so analytic in essence
 
nonono, you're not supposed to speak positively of categorical approaches in this chat
 
Hahaha thorgott you know that I took a lecture on HoTT last semester?
 
Some one just answer the question I sent here long time ago. I think now everything is fine except that why q_i's should distinct primes
 
7:03 PM
Categories with families as models for type theories, kan complexes and such
 
@Thorgott Right, the geometry brains will devour me
 
yeah
starting to realize I'm surrounded by mutants
 
If I'm finding more difficulty in exercises with $\varepsilon$-$\delta$ or $\varepsilon$-$N$, does that mean I didn't understand very well the definitions and what's going on with limits and continuity?

Because I would say that yes, I understand these concepts, but somehow these kinds of proofs in specific functions are not coming easily, especially when it's something like $\lim \frac{a^n}{n!}$
 
It was cool, though too fast and sketchy oftentimes. I got hung up on details that the lecturer didn't like to spell out, and had to work through too many pages about simplicial set combinatorics that I should've just taken for granted by geometric intuition
also, for the life of me, I just couldn't wrap my head around many things involving pullbacks. I still know no good explanation for what they mean geometrically. I know substitution, equations and fiber bundles are a sort of special case, but in my fields I don't have a lot of applications
non-algebra brain
 
pullbacks are just fancy intersections, kind of
@Attractor I don't believe there's any reason to involve $\varepsilon-\delta$ to calculate that limit
that just obscures what's going on
 
7:12 PM
yeah, I got so much from simplicial sets, but it wasn't so much help oftentimes
@Thorgott I think it's an exercise
 
and what's going on is that you always multiply the nominator by the same number, yet the denominator by larger and larger numbers
 
I remember that one from analysis I, iI think it needed some kind of small trick to show that it converges to 0
 
yeah, I hate exercises that force students to use $\varepsilon-\delta$ in places where there's no need to
 
It's a necessary skill to get fluent in it
construction of lebesgue measure and integral needs enough such approximations
 
I agree, but there are enough other things one could do where epsilon-delta comes naturally as proof strategy and doesn't just feel contrived
 
7:15 PM
So it's better to get fluent earlier than later
@Thorgott yeah but for example, they don't have logarithms available
I'd assume
 
no need for logarithms
what I said about the nominator and denominator can be turned into a perfectly clear proof
 
Indeed, it's an exercise, but still... I just don't want to be discouraged to keep studying math just because I'm finding these proofs painful
 
Yeah true I tried and logarithms just obscure. But I'd say most proofs of this fact are messy if they're in detail
 
7:36 PM
it doesn't take that much work
so here's perhaps a starting point: if you think about constructing the sequence inductively, you multiply with $a/n$ at the $n$-th step and this term will eventually be less than $1$
 
it should be easiest to do some inequality with powers of two I'd think
 
7:59 PM
Ok, so I have a topological space $X$ and I want to describe homology groups as direct sums of path-components $X_i$. Does anybody want to check what algebraic assumptions I'm implicitly using when calculating around?

Since every singular simplex's image is path connected, it must be contained in exactly one path component, and so a formal sum of simplices can be decomposed as sums of simplices with values in respective path components, i.e. if $C_n, C_n^i$ are the singular $n$-chains in $X, X_i$, then $$C_n \simeq \bigoplus_{i \in I} C_n^i \text{~~~(direct sum)}$$
 
00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

« first day (3761 days earlier)      last day (1246 days later) »