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12:00 AM
You SURE this is the correct integral, @Nobody? It still comes out a bit yucky.
\ne @Jake
oh, I dunno if \not < works
$\not <$
Yeah, that works.
 
@TedShifrin ok now i am confirming .
 
@ÉricoMeloSilva r/murderedbywords
 
@TedShifrin okay so it’s not a sin to put a slash through an inequality?
 
You sure the region is really a square with that?
 
just checking
 
12:01 AM
I would write $\ge$ instead, @Jake.
 
Assuming a total order.
 
He's a physicist.
 
@TedShifrin yeah confirmed there is a on top. Though that doesn't make a difference.
 
I don’t know if that was an insult but I’d like to say I’m a mathematical physicist
I’m a halfbreed
 
You are only insulted if you are insulted :P
If the integral were over the inside of a circle, it would make a big difference, @Nobody.
Where is this problem coming from?
 
12:04 AM
I don’t understand a lot of the hate between physicists and mathmeticians
 
I'm not hating, I swear.
 
we may use the same tools but we tend to do different things
@TedShifrin I know dw
 
Physicists tend not to care about whether things really make sense mathematically, sometimes. They have their own sort of intuition.
 
@TedShifrin I agree with that
i think it comes from a sense of we don’t really care unless it’s ‘real’
 
or imaginary
 
12:06 AM
@TedShifrin I have a good Feynman video you might enjoy
The n dimension bit always gets me
 
No time now, though.
 
@TedShifrin fair
 
@TedShifrin well its in the courtesy of our professor. The problem was "a point charge is located at the corner of cube of side a find the flux through surfaces which do not meet at q$ could be done by gauss law but professor is bit more interested in the integration that he gave it homework.
 
if I take a subset X of the real line and it is uncountable, is it necessarily dense in some ball in R?
 
Oh, @Nobody, the integral does work out pretty nicely. Do it in polar coordinates over half the square. You should end up with something like $\int_0^{\pi/4}(1+\sec^2\theta)^{-1/2}d\theta$, which looks horrendous, but is doable if you use an obvious trig identity after writing in terms of $\cos$.
 
12:09 AM
@LeakyNun Did he say it's a great project for you?
 
Yes, @famesyasd. If you have an uncountable subset of $[0,1]$, can you prove it must be dense in some interval?
 
@TedShifrin and language...
 
@MikeMiller he said it's the right level for me
 
Yeah, that too.
 
Ok, that's better advice than any of us can give then.
 
12:09 AM
^^^^
Or you could be like Zee and ask for advice just to do the opposite ...
rolls 7 + $\pi/6$ eyes
 
@TedShifrin will try that. Thanks for the help and your time.
 
You're welcome.
 
@TedShifrin lmfao
 
3/8 done copyediting this monstrosity.
 
oh man
anyway, off I go
 
12:24 AM
@TedShifrin No
 
I'm confused by this proof, if the set of $m \times n$ matrices of full rank is an open subset of $M(m \times n, \mathbb{R})$, how does continuity allow us to conclude the Jacobian of $F$ has full rank in some nbhd of $p$?
 
By definition of continuity, in fact.
 
@TedShifrin but the Cantor's set on [0,1] is nowhere dense.
 
(and uncountable)
 
so cardinality has nothing to do with density?
 
12:34 AM
For $\mathbb R$. Indeed, the Cantor set has cardinality equal to the continuum, so we do not have to assume CH or anything of that sort.
In the other direction, finite sets are never dense ;)
 
@KarlKronenfeld But $dF_p$ is a map from $T_pM$ to $T_{F(p)}N$ and we can view the Jacobian matrix of $F$ as a map from $T_{\hat{p}}\mathbb{R}^k$ to $T_{\hat{F(p)}}\mathbb{R}^l$, the codomain of either of these maps isn't $M(m\times n, \mathbb{R})$ so when the author says continuity, which map is the author referring to?
(also $k$ is the dimension of $M$ and $l$ the dim of $N$ in the above)
 
Use the map sending $q$ to the Jacobian at $q$.
 
Okay but then it doesn't seem obvious to me that such a map would be continuous
Can I view the map as a composition of continuous maps?
 
Go back to definition of smooth map.
 
12:52 AM
Or C^1 map
 
0
Q: Is $\mathbb{Z} ((-2)^{\frac{1}{n}})$ ever a UFD?

mickLet $n>2$ be an integer. Consider the integral domains $\mathbb{Z} ((-2)^{\frac{1}{n}})$. For what integer values of $n$ is $\mathbb{Z} ((-2)^{\frac{1}{n}})$ a UFD ? Are there infinitely many solutions ? Same question for $\mathbb{Z} (2^{\frac{1}{n}})$.

 
Yes, more precisely :)
 
1:17 AM
Well since $F$ is smooth all the partial derivatives of all orders exist and are continuous, but what I'm saying is that while the map $\xi : M \to M(m \times n, \mathbb{R})$ defined by $\xi(p) = \text{Jacobian matrix of $F$ at $p$}$ is a map taking $p$ to a matrix containing entries that vary continuously, I don't understand how that implies that $\xi$ is continuous. Maybe I am forgetting some basic linear algebra fact
 
You give the space of matrices the product topology so that it is homeomorphic to $\mathbb R^{mn}$.
 
Okay but then the only result I have at hand to show that $\xi$ is continuous is the following:
Let $(X, d)$ be a metric space and let $f_1, ..., f_k$ be real valued functions on $X$ (that is $f_i : X \to \mathbb{R}$ for $i \in \{1, \dots k\}$ ) and let $\mathbf{f} : X \to \mathbb{R}^k$ be defined by $$\mathbf{f}(x) = \left( f_1(x), \dots, f_k(x)\right)$$ then $\mathbf{f}$ is continuous if and only if each of the functions $f_1, \dots, f_k$ is continuous.
So do I need to view $M$ as a metric space to show that $\xi$ is continuous
Because then since the space of matrices is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^{mn}$ I can view $\xi$ as a function from $M$ to $\mathbb{R}^{mn}$ and the above result would apply
 
@MikeMiller how is the orbit in Lorenz homeomorphic to $\mathbb R$? doesnt it limit onto itself?
 
@Perturbative You're working in a coordinate chart, so you have a metric if you really need one. But, one definition of/result about continuity is that the preimage of any open set via a continuous map is open.
 
@KarlKronenfeld Okay so if the preimage of $\xi$ is open in $M$ then why can we conclude that the Jacobian of $F$ has full rank in this open set?
 
1:34 AM
/././.././.
jajajajajajajaja
 
Because, you're picking the right open set to take the preimage of using $\xi$ (the author gave this set to you). Then, consider what happens when you apply $\xi$ to anything in this preimage.
 
@DouglasSirk Given an ODE on $\Bbb R^k$, the flowline through a point $p$ is a map $\gamma: I \to \Bbb R^k$, where $I$ is an interval, $\gamma(0) = p$, and $\gamma$ satisfies the ODE. Further we demand that $I$ is the largest possible domain of $\gamma$: there is no solution defined on a larger interval. Note that by the existence and uniqueness theorem for solutions to ODEs, in particular, the flowline is unique if eg the ODE is C^1.
For the Lorenz attractor, the largest interval $I$ is $\Bbb R$ itself.
But a flowline, by definition, is a map from $\Bbb R$, or possibly some subset (or if you like, the image of this map.)
The Lorenz continuum you are asking about is the closure of a certain flowline.
That is, as far as I know, its definition.
 
@KarlKronenfeld Okay I get it now, applying $\xi$ gives a matrix of full rank, so the Jacobian of $F$ in coordinates has full rank, thus $dF_p$ has full rank in this nbhd
Thanks for your help! @KarlKronenfeld
 
@Perturbative Yep
no problem
 
2:04 AM
0
Q: Is $\mathbb{Z} [(-2)^{\frac{1}{n}}]$ ever a UFD?

mickLet $n>2$ be an integer. Consider the integral domains $\mathbb{Z} [(-2)^{\frac{1}{n}}]$. For what integer values of $n$ is $\mathbb{Z} [(-2)^{\frac{1}{n}}]$ a UFD ? Are there infinitely many solutions ? Same question for $\mathbb{Z} [2^{\frac{1}{n}}]$.

 
 
1 hour later…
3:13 AM
Directrix and Dandelin Spheres: What is the directrix of hyperbola and ellipse in Dandelin sphere representation here?
 
3:29 AM
Is there a way to have only 1 number per align by default in LaTeX?
Tired of putting splits everywhere.
 
 
2 hours later…
5:31 AM
Why are even rank tensors invariant under inversion?
 
 
2 hours later…
7:28 AM
 
7:52 AM
???
 
8:14 AM
Points repelling each other
By the way
I randomly stumbled upon this
It's pretty cool - the simplest demonstration of the Earth's curvature that I've ever seen
(Beyond the "we see the sun go below the horizon and that would make it night everywhere at once" thing)
The comments are… disappointing
 
Rule number one of the internet: Do not read the comments
That video also reminds me of a concept:
Projective geometry is probably the easiest way to make use of infinite objects. Here a vanishing point at infinity actually has physically measurable results as shown
I wonder what other domains of maths can make infinity more tangible for daily uses?
 
Incidentally
Cool geometry thing
A metamaterial is a material whose function is determined by its structure rather than its composition. An example is butterfly wings. There's no pigment there - the texture at the nanoscale determines what light is reflected and in what way!
Nature is really good at nanotechnology, much better than we are. So most of our attempts at metamaterials are at a much larger scale. Still, they're pretty cool.
 
8:32 AM
Not surprising given it has so much time to experiment with many things
 
8:56 AM
Snow gets its color from its microstructure (rather than nanostructure), I think
Snowflakes are a good example of natural complexity that doesn't come from Darwinian evolution
 
 
1 hour later…
10:12 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos!
 
9
Q: Does the concept of infinity have any practical applications?

AlexanderI know what you're thinking: "of course it has, for example, it can be used to tell you how many times you can go around a circle". But that isn't really true, now is it? You'd be dead or the world would go under long before an infinite amount of loops had been reached. Are there any practical a...

Actually, I found that infinity often comes from extrapolating some regular process or pattern. But why do we always believe it will eventually lead to something?
 
11:13 AM
> Absolutely, infinity has countless (:P) practical applications.
rolls countless eyes
^More wibbly wibbly wobbly
 
12:10 PM
1
Q: Prove $ \mathbb{Z}[\sqrt -5] $ is not a UFD without factoring?

mickWe know the ring $ \mathbb{Z}[\sqrt -5] $ is not a UFD. The typical proof is showing that $6$ factors in $2$ ways. But there must be a better way to show this than to do trial and error factoring of some random element of the ring. So how does one prove $ \mathbb{Z}[\sqrt -5] $ is not a UFD wi...

 
@Mick compute the Minkowski bound
Hey @Alessandro
@Mick sorry I misread your question. In any case, the machinery your commentors are probably referring to is computation of the ideal class group of $\Bbb Z[\sqrt{-5}]$, which you'd do well to learn about if you're interested in this sort of thing
(and which also requires you to compute the Minkowski bound anyway, if you wanna save yourself a chunk of work)
 
12:27 PM
Hi @ÍgjøgnumMeg
 
Hi :)
How's it going?
 
Exams are getting very close
 
The pit of doom
 
But the next semester is going to be great, I'll do a lot of set theory
 
Sounds just like what you'd enjoy!
 
12:29 PM
Indeed! I signed up for the graduate seminar in set theory just yesterday, I got a cool topic for my talk
 
12:39 PM
Hello! Can someone give the formula to solve (1/2 + 1/12 + 1/30 + .......till infinity) Thanks
 
@Alessandro Nice, what's your topic (bearing in mind I have absolutely no idea about set theory)
 
Kunen's inconsistency theorem and cardinals on the edge of inconsistency
 
lol
sounds quite arcane
 
Basically there is a hierarchy of large cardinals (which will be topic of the whole seminar), cardinals with particular properties whose existence cannot be proved in ZFC, simple examples are inaccessible cardinals: uncountable cardinals $\kappa$ such that $2^\lambda<\kappa$ for every $\lambda<\kappa$
 
@Alessandro one of my old students is doing his undergrad dissertation on elliptic curves, which I was happy to hear
@Alessandro I see, sounds cool still
 
12:44 PM
Less simple examples are measurable cardinals, cardinals $\kappa$ with a finitely additive nontrivial 2-valued measure
 
But there's plenty of large cardinals, weakly compact, supercompact, indescribable, extendable, huge, etc.
 
lmfao
sounds so silly
Definition: Huge
@Alessandro I didn't get the job I applied for, so now I'm sending yet another application for a Master in Frankfurt...
lol
 
Kunen's inconsistency refers to a particular type of extremely strong large cardinals, namely Reinhardt cardinals, and it shows that this is in fact too strong and inconsistent with ZFC
So it is in some sense an upper bound on how far this hierarchy of cardinals can grow
 
12:47 PM
And there are some cardinals (rank into rank) which are slight weakenings of Reinhardt cardinals whose consistency with ZFC is still open
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Oh, I'm sorry to hear that :/ But hopefully you won't have to wait to long before starting your Master then
 
@Alessandro yeah.. it's all gone a bit panicked because Heidelberg didn't work
which was my fault anyway but yeah, hopefully I can just start in April as planned
 
That'd be the best
 
that's what I want anyway lol
Might have to call upon the formidable finances of my aunt and uncle though
I saved about 5000 GBP working for 6 months
but that aint enough to finance an entire master
 
No but it should be a good chunk of it
Convert it to real money before brexit though :P
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg I was censor on oral exams in elliptic curves the past two days. Meant I had some reading to do beforehand, as I have not done anything with elliptic curves since my second year of undergrad.
 
12:57 PM
@Tobias I haven't done anything on elliptic curves, but he said my dissertation inspired him to do something number theory related so he chose that
which was really nice
 
neat
Two of the students were slightly stumped when I asked them if they could name an example of a group where the discrete log problem is very easy (since they has presented the MOV attack on it for elliptic curves, which reduces it to multiplicative groups of finite fields which are somewhat easier, but still potentially hard when the embedding degree is high).
 
 
2 hours later…
3:08 PM
Does there exist a single group satisfying $\langle x,y\mid y^2=x^2=1\neq (xy)^n, \forall n\in\mathbb{N}\rangle$ or would that be a family of groups? (Or perhaps does no such group exist?)
 
I mean if you're asking I'd that's a presentation it's not
 
presentation?
Does that refer to the group generator I tried to type up?
 
Google group presentation
It's a way to specify a group
You have not specified a group, just stated a condition: it is 2-generated by x and y, degree 2 elements, so that (xy)^n is never the identity
 
Okay, so any number of different groups could satisfy that condition?
 
Continuing my series of "random geometry stuff that I link in the chat randomly"
 
3:14 PM
@Rithaniel yes, why not?
You haven't had any reason to believe otherwise yet as far as I can see
 
I also have no reason to believe that there would be multiples. I might suspect that multiple groups exist which satisfy that, but I've not put in the work yet, and for all I know, there could be some proof out there that only one such group exists.
(Thank you for the info, by the way)
 
@Rithaniel But there is of course a group with presentation $\langle x,y\mid x^2,y^2\rangle$, which does satisfy the additional condition you have there.
Actually, any group satisfying the conditions will be a quotient of that, and as far as I recall, it only has finite quotients.
 
I'm still fairly early in my abstract algebra course. We've been touching on morphisms this week and we haven't yet gotten to quotient groups.
Hmmm, so this would necessarily also be a normal subgroup? I would have expected that. Also, the line $xGx^{-1}=G$ is kind of confusing me. Does that mean that the relation holds for every element in $G$?
(Ah, nope, it refers to cosets)
 
3:36 PM
@Rithaniel it means that there exist $g, h \in G$ st $xgx^{-1} = h$
 
user131753
In The Joy of Cats it is written that (slightly paraphrased), "[If $F:(\mathbf{A},U)\to (\mathbf{B},V)$ be a concrete isomorphism between the concrete categories $(\mathbf{A},U)$ and $(\mathbf{B},V)$ then the fact] that such a concrete isomorphism exists means, informally, that each structure in $\mathbf{A}$, i.e., each object $A$ of $\mathbf{A}$, can be completely substituted by a structure in $\mathbf{B}$,
 
user131753
namely $F(A)$ (keeping, of course, the same morphisms).
 
user131753
What does it mean to say that each $A$ object $\mathbf{A}$ is "can be completely substituted by a structure in $\mathbf{B}$"? What is the informal difference between a concrete isomorphism and an isomorphism?
 
@TobiasKildetoft Ah, you are right! I am really embarassed. The group $\langle x, y \mid x^2 = y^2 = 1\rangle$ is better known as the infinite Dihedral group, whose quotients are all itself, finite dihedral, or finite cyclic.
 
user131753
Anyone? Any idea?
 
3:50 PM
@Rithaniel To be explicit, Tobias has made the point that this does specify one group. However, I will repeat the point I was making: normally you cannot specify a group by specifying some generators, some relations, and some non-relations.
 
Alright, well that is still a good thing for me to keep in mind. I need to be careful about how I specify things.
 
Writing some number of generators, and then some equalities those generators must satisfy, does indeed specify a group.
 
@user170039 Concrete isomorphisms are stronger than isomorphisms in general, since concrete isomorphisms establish an equivalence of structures on the same sets, while an arbitrary isomorphism does not come with any reference to the category of sets. If one concrete category is isomorphic to another, it means the structures (on the corresponding sets) given by the one do not mean anything different from the structures given by the other -- you can swap out the structures and nothing changes.
 
So, in this case, if I were to say, add another requirement, assuming for a moment that this added requirement is possible, does that necessarily result in a different group?
 
I do not understand your question
What do you mean by "added requirement"?
An equality of words in the generators?
(That is the interpretation for which you are still giving me a group presentation, which specifies a group.)
In that case, you can clearly make formulas whose truth follows from the formulas you already have. The stupidest example is $\langle x \mid x = 1\rangle$, which is the same as... $\langle x \mid x = 1, x= 1\rangle$. I've added the same relation twice ;)
 
user131753
4:00 PM
@KarlKronenfeld "If one concrete category is isomorphic to another, it means the structures (on the corresponding sets) given by the one do not mean anything different from the structures given by the other -- you can swap out the structures and nothing changes." - why so?
 
Less pedantic is eg $\langle x \mid x = 1, x^2 = 1\rangle$
 
user131753
Essentially this was the part that I find difficult to understand. I have no problem with the forma definition itself, @KarlKronenfeld.
 
This comes down to the premise of category theory: the morphisms tell you everything important about a structure.
 
Okay, so what about allowing that you have an additional requirement whose truth does not necessarily follow from the formulas already presented, such as "$xy^{-1}=x^n$ for some $n\in\Bbb{N}$"?
 
@Rithaniel how do you know that it doesn't already follow from the formulas presented?
 
4:04 PM
@user170039 To back that up a little, often structures (especially algebraic structures) can be restated using morphisms alone, so it makes sense that morphisms would characterize such structures. Extending beyond this context is a matter of hypothesis and, really, ymmv.
 
Honestly, I don't, but if it does, we can just replace the $=$ with $\neq$ and the "for some" with "for any"
 
user131753
@KarlKronenfeld Indeed. But that would mean that the morphisms of the concrete category $(\mathbf{A},U)$ (and similarly of $(\mathbf{B},V)$) tells me everything important about a structure.
 
@user170039 Yep
That is the point.
 
@Rithaniel No, I tried to make clear above that you cannot specify a group by adding inequalities.
The fact that it worked in the one case you cooked up was unfortunately a fluke.
 
Ah, right, right, sorry.
 
4:06 PM
no need to be sorry
This is the issue. If you have a group presentation, and you write down some word in the generators (note that every formula $w_1 = w_2$ is equivalent to $w_1 w_2^{-1} = 1$; we may as well just be adding the relation $w = 1$ for some word $w$), then there is no algorithm to determine whether or not $w = 0$ follows from your other relations.
This is called the undecidability of the word problem.
 
user131753
Under this viewpoint one case if two categories are isomorphic we can treat them as being "essentially same". Right @KarlKronenfeld?
 
If you can ever prove that adding this new relation actually changes the group, you have proved a theorem.
It does not follow trivially.
 
Okay, I think I understand, then.
So, there is no easy way to evaluate, at least at a glance, if adding a requirement to the infinite dihedral group will necessarily change it?
 
@user170039 Yeah.
 
Or any group, for that matter
 
4:10 PM
@user170039 Isomorphic objects of a category are usually regarded as "essentially the same", though you often want the/an explicit isomorphism. (Unique up to unique isomorphism is a common phrase)
 
user131753
@KarlKronenfeld My question then simply is this: How will two concretely isomoprhic categories be viewed keeping in mind the analogy of isomorphism between "abstract" categories?
 
that does not seem to be a question
@Rithaniel Correct; you can certainly prove results, since the infinite dihedral group is reasonably tractable.
But they do not come from just looking.
 
user131753
@MikeMiller Sorry.
 
@user170039 now your equivalence preserves the set-level description of objects and morphisms. that's all.
 
Same idea as having rings that are isomorphic as groups under addition, or isomorphic as rings.
 
user131753
4:14 PM
@MikeMiller Why sets? A concrete category is just a pair $(\mathbf{A},U)$ such that $U:\mathbf{A}\to\mathbf{X}$ is a faithful functor for some category $\mathbf{X}$.
 
You have extra structure on you categories, namely the functors to sets, and it is preserved by a concrete isomorphism.
 
the only definition of concrete category I have ever seem in my life has $\mathbf{X} = \mathsf{Set}$
 
Is there a place where one can find a decent collection of example chern polynomials?
 
You could also go to another concrete category $X$, I guess.
 
@user616128 no, what more precisely are you after?
 
4:16 PM
And I assume that you could also potentially prove that an added requirement would result in contradiction?
 
@Rithaniel No, you can never find a group that does not satisfy some list of generators and equalities between words in the generators. That always specifies a group.
 
user131753
@MikeMiller I read the definition from here pp 58 Def. 5.1(1).
 
If you write down a bunch of dumb shit you might just specify the trivial group, eg $\langle x, y \mid x = y, xy^2 = 1, xy = yx, xy = y^3x\rangle$
 
More precisely, examples of nonvanishing third chern classes
 
There are the universal examples, there are examples on projective spaces.
 
4:18 PM
Okay, so you always have such a group, but you don't know if one group is necessarily different from another, hence why isomorphisms are so important.
 
@user170039 what they call a construct is what everybody else calls a concrete category
 
I've seen $X$-concrete used when they mean X\ne Set
 
when Freyd wrote the paper "homotopy is not concrete" I assure you he was not claiming that the category $\mathsf{Ho}(\mathsf{Top})$ does not admit a faithful functor to any category whatsoever. :)
anyway if you want to replace by $\mathbf{X}$ above then you just take my sentence "now your equivalence preserves the set-level description..." and replace set with $\mathbf{X}$.
there is no functional difference, but now X is some random thing that we do not usually imagine we have a picture of.
 
4:31 PM
If you have P(X=x, Y=y, Z=z) = P(X=x | Y=y) * P(Y=y|Z=z) * P(Z=z | W, K) (i.e. the product decomposition rule, where e.g. W and K are the parent random variables of Z), do I need actually need to sum over all possible combinations of W and K, i.e. P(X=x, Y=y, Z=z) = P(X=x | Y=y) * P(Y=y|Z=z) * P(Z=z | W=1, K=1) + P(X=x | Y=y) * P(Y=y|Z=z) * P(Z=z | W=0, K=0) + P(X=x | Y=y) * P(Y=y|Z=z) * P(Z=z | W=0, K=1) + ... ?
In other words, P(Z=z | W, K) = P(Z=z|W=0, K=0) + P(Z=z|W=1, K=1) + P(Z=z|W=0, K=1) + P(Z=z|W=1, K=0)?
 
 
2 hours later…
6:30 PM
@Daminark i heard through the grapevine that ur jumping into the Neves-reading
 
Maybe, I know someone wanted to do a reading course with Neves next quarter and he was like yeah if there's enough people sure, and he said that since he's gonna be doing Danny's Riemannian geo he might ask to have a course on extending stuff we'll do this quarter, maybe Morse theory, maybe characteristic classes, etc
That I'd be down for at least attending, even if I don't take it as a class
 
hi Demonark @Eric
 
hlo hlo
 
Also today in difftop I have found a newfound appreciation for PDE since we talked a bit about how Brouwer gives you the Yamabe problem
Hey @Ted!
 
yamabe problem is sick as hell
 
6:36 PM
Hi @Ted @Dami @Érico
 
Hi demonic @Alessaandro
 
It looks more demonic with all those vowels
 
Aaleessaandroo
 
lol
For some reason a lot of non Italians tend to remove an s or double the l in my name
 
I was creative.
 
6:39 PM
For sure. We didn't exactly go through the details of the estimates and all, just said that the inverse Laplacian can be seen as a compact operator $C^{0,\alpha} \to C^{0,\alpha}$ and then if you take the set of $u \le 0$ such that $e^u \le R$ for some appropriate $R$, then that satisfies hypotheses of Schauder fixed point theorem, so $\Lambda^{-1}(e^u) = u$, so yeah.
 
Nice stuff, Demonark.
 
that's weird cuz like who spells that name w one s
i think a bunch of the romance languages spells it w x and spanish w maybe a j?
 
Then he mentioned that this implies that if you have a manifold with metric $e^u$ times the Euclidean metric, then you had constant scalar curvature. Didn't go through the details and I'm not exactly the master of diffgeo to follow totally what this means but still seems pretty sweet
 
Well, that's not very interesting diff geo. That's just a simple formula.
 
@ÉricoMeloSilva it has a single x in all the Germanic languages I think
 
6:42 PM
fixed point theorems all over PDE
@AlessandroCodenotti yeah this sounds right
 
But then it becomes a ks if you further east
 
or a zh
no, I guess not.
 
my middle name is spelled like the french way
alexandre
we pronounce the x like "sh" tho
 
Oh wait I misremembered, apparently scalar curvature is actually $-1$, not just constant
 
No, not from what you said.
I don't think ...
Eric should know this in his sleep, but I'd need to compute.
 
6:46 PM
idr the scalar curvature transformation law but it's not that hard to compute
 
Nope, but I'm not gonna crank up moving frames just yet.
 
the big daddy yamabe for positive yamabe invariant i think u need to use some big daddy theorem like PMT or something
it's hard
 
what's PMT?
 
positive mass
schoen-whoever
yau?
 
Yau
yeah
 
6:48 PM
classic
@Daminark this reminds me, I was talking to him about complex and he said something like "if i taught complex id accidentally end up ranting about how awesome the yamabe problem is and no one would learn complex analysis"
and naturally in my diff geo class second year he talked about it a bunch and seems hes done it in diff top too
man likes what he likes
 
Amazing
To be fair about complex analysis, it's only ever 2/3 complex analysis
At most
(Though I hear Lawler's probability stuff when he taught actually linked back to the complex analysis)
 
i feel like i got screwed over w all the number theory last year
i did not like it at all
 
Yeah I sorta wish we did Riemann surfaces or something
 
that's what i wouldve preferred
 
I feel like that's definitely something that falls under the "general interest" category moreso than analytic number theory
Smart's doing grad complex this year and I might just sit in tbh
 
7:00 PM
oh word if he's doing it i might show up too
 
Like I guess there's definitely good content in analytic number theory and I might try to revisit it at some point in the future just because, but somehow it didn't excite me much
 
it kinda killed my desire to ever look at it again tbh
Analytic NT and foundations are probably the things im least likely to ever look at in my life
 
Analytic NT is very understandable
But foundations are the best
 
i can understand ppl liking foundations it's just not my taste
but with analytic nt actually i just dont know why ppl do it
i just could not stand it
 
Lol, some stuff in analytic NT like modular forms (which looks absolutely nothing like what we did in class) I definitely still wanna try out and they seem like things I may very likely end up thinking about later. Prime number theorem type of stuff... I can't really get behind somehow
 
7:05 PM
You need an unusual combination of interests in maths to like ANT I think
 
I think the path we took toward doing it was a bit more convoluted than usual though
 
@Daminark totally fair
 
7:23 PM
Can we bound the rank of the wreath product $G \wr H$ in terms of the ranks of $G$ and $H$?
For example $\text{rank}(G \wr H) \geq \text{rank}(H)$ I think
And of course $\text{rank}(G \wr H) \leq \text{rank}(G) + \text{rank}(H)$. Is there a better upper bound?
 
Not too long ago I had an epiphany about why $\sin x+\cos x=\sqrt2\cos(x-\frac\pi4)$
Consider a unit segment with one end fixed to the origin and the other swinging around it. The $x$-coordinate of the free end is described by $\cos x$.
 
@Alessandro Danish and Norwegian use a "ks" instead of an "x", while Swedish usually uses an "x"
err
 
Now consider the same setup but rotated ninety degrees. This gives us another swinging arm whose $x$-coordinate is $\sin x$.
Now perform the vector sum of the arms by gluing the second one to the edge of the first.
 
@Alessandro for example the word for "trousers" in Norwegian is "buksa" while it is "Byxa" in Swedish
 
7:36 PM
You end up with a bent L-shape swinging around the origin.
The distance from the origin to the swinging tip of that L-shape is $\sqrt2$.
 
Interesting
 
And the vector from the origin to the tip is rotated 45 degrees from the vectors making up the L-shape.
So we end up with $\sqrt2\cos(x-\frac\pi4)$.
 
Also just for completeness I messed up the definition of measurable cardinal earlier, I want a proper measure, not a finitely additive one (finitely additive nontrivial 2-valued measures exist on every cardinal, assuming AC)
 
This also explains why $A\sin(x)+B\cos(y)$ has amplitude $\sqrt{A^2+B^2}$.
/end
 
8:10 PM
Is this identity legal? i.imgur.com/RKButP2.png
 
8:26 PM
@user10478 The first and last are equivalent but the middle isn't because $\int_a^bf(x,y)dy$ is still a function in $x$
You can write $\int_c^d\int_a^bg(x)f(x,y)dydx$ in the middle instead
and then swap the integrals like $\int_a^b\int_c^df(x,y)g(x)dxdy$
and separate it out into the last expression in the pic
 
8:44 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Okay, so to get the middle result, both f and g have to be functions only of their respective variable of integration, to move between the outer results and the expression you added, at least one must be a single variable function, and if both are functions of x and y, you can't do anything, correct?
Or even if you have g(x) matched up with dy and f(x) matched up with dx, you can't do anything?
 
9:11 PM
I'm having a hard time seeing why the second and third expressions in my image aren't equal.
Since the definite integral of g(x) dx resolves to a constant.
 
The definite integral of f(x,y) dy does not resolve to a constant.
 
But isn't $\int_a^b f(x,\ y) k dy$ identical to $k * \int_a^b f(x,\ y) dy$?
 
9:28 PM
You didn't take $\int g(x)dx$ out of the integral of $f\ dy$. You tried to take $\int f(x,y)dy$ out of the integral of $g\ dx$. Notice which one is the outer integral in the first expression.
 
True, but now I'm wondering if we can go from the first expression to your expression, to the third expression, to the second expression, making them all interchangeable after all.
 
 
1 hour later…
10:42 PM
Theorem from Rudin's FA book: If $\mathcal{B}$ is a local base for a topological vector space, then every member of $\mathcal{B}$ contains the closure of some member of $\mathcal{B}$. I'm screwing up my quantifiers. Is this statement saying that, given $B \in \mathcal{B}$, there is some $B' \in \mathcal{B}$ such that $\overline{B'} \subseteq B$?
 
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