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12:36 AM
anyone any good at graph theory?
@Abcd i have never seen a good high school math textbook pretty sure its a does not exist thing.
 
 
1 hour later…
1:49 AM
@Faust nodes, edges, directed lines, paths, circuit, hamiltonian path, 3 houses problem, konisberg bridge, traveling saleman, tours, knight's tour, connected graphs, weighted binary trees, rings... whatever it is, shoot your question.
 
0
Q: Cycle edges cut of a 3 regular graph

FaustDenote $\lambda_c(G) $to be the smallest integer k (if it exists) such that there exists a set Y with k edges such that $G-Y$ is disconnected and each of its components has a cycle. let $G \notin \{K_4,K_{3,3}\}$ be a connected cubic graph such that $|Y|=\lambda_c(G)$ and $G-Y$ is disconnected an...

fucked up 3 regular edge cut of cycles
i think im close with the ideas i have but cant quite finish it
its driving me nutz i found an exceedinly complicated solution of 2 switchs
to reduce to the case wher ei have 1 2 or 3 edges of diffrent colours in Y but i want a diffrent solution
@Nick
 
 
1 hour later…
3:21 AM
woot woot got the Socratic badge
 
congrats
 
first gold badge actually proud of
and its something most people will never get cause they know things, lol
 
> knowing is half the battle
 
i ask alot of questions when i am learning something but i usually dont forget it
 
the answers to your questions are memory hooks
2
 
 
4 hours later…
7:27 AM
ugh I caught a cold and I didn't sleep
 
i guess, trying to sleep it off is not an option?
 
but I want to do things
 
@mercio Gute Besserung!
 
goedemorgen
 
7:40 AM
@mercio goe'e morge'
 
@Mercio I have some metal picture about those $E_i$ reps all gving $Alt^2(E_i)=Rotz$.
 
metals have lots of moving electrons
 
Its like all consist of two vectors from the same plane, but with different angles.
 
my guess is that faithful representatoins into GL(2) * GL(1) is just too restricting
 
the angles correlate somehow with the divisors of the order of the highest rotation in the elements
In chemistry we see these IRREPs all the time in the symmetry of the orbitals
 
7:43 AM
that's because
of the molien series
 
In the solid state the $i$ from $E_i$ gets a continuous parameter. Because
you can imagine a chain as an infinite circle
 
do you have a nice description of all the Ei of those families of groups ?
 
For the solid its old and well known; for point groups I would not be aware of such a thing, but that doesn't mean there are no people who do.
In the solid the parameters are called "reciprocal lattice vectors"
vectors since the solid is 3D periodic
but in our infinite circle analogy it would be just a scalar.
actually they are not really "continuous" I guess but I don't know.
Strictly they are in $\Bbb Q$, I guess.
The reciprocal lattice is a kind of FT of the chain of atoms.
(and in my mental picture the infinite periodic chain is like a circlular pattern with circle radius = $\infty$)
here I have drawn three such $E$-orbitals
ignore the straight lines in $E_3$
 
it looks like it's parametrized by N instead of Q
 
@mercio maybe in 1D its N and in 2D it gets Q ?
 
7:58 AM
is this 1D ?
 
yes
the infinite circle is the picture for a chain
but we here stop at $i=3$
 
what is the circle equivalent for 2D ?
 
So that really would be irreps of $C_7$ or something
a torus
 
mhm
 
 
3 hours later…
10:35 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos hab ich ein dank beweis, das Splitkorper sind normale
frage mir wann du hier seist
actually I’ll just type it now
 
@Leaky ich habe einen DaNkEn Beweis, dass Zerfaellungskoerper normale Koerpererweiterungen sind
 
danke
 
You have a thankful proof?
 
@Alessandro na, dank
as in
DaNk
hahaha
 
that’s right :p
let F be the base field, and let f, g in F[X] irreducible. Let K1 be a splitting field for f; let K2 similarly for g with roots b1 ... bn. Let b1 in K1, and we need to show that the other roots are also in K1. For each root bj of g, create K2j a copy of K2. We now have the following maps: phi:F(b1)->K1 and psi_j:F(b1)->K2j where psi_j(b1)=bj.
consider the big ring K1 (x) K2_1 (x) ... (x) K2_n where all tensors are based with F(b1). quotient by a maximal ideal to make it field. We treat this field as a common F(b1)-extension of K1, K2_1, ... K2_n
Let B be the big field, and we now have maps alpha : K1 -> B, beta_j : K2_j -> B
 
11:14 AM
being F(b1)-algebra maps, they satisfy alpha(b1) = beta_j(psi_j(b1)) = beta_j(bj)
 
11:25 AM
I’ll continue this later
 
11:53 AM
well since K1 is a splitting field and b1 in K1, then (beta_j o psi_j)(b1) is in alpha(K1), i.e. beta_j(bj) in alpha(K1), so I believe we’re done, lol
 
12:40 PM
Hey everyone
 
what is integral 1/3+ x^2
is it tan^-1 or log
 
Quick question, is the definition for the sign function for a permutation $\alpha \in S_n$, the following: If $\alpha = \beta_1\beta_2 \dots \beta_k$ is a representation of $\alpha$ in terms of disjoint cycles then we define $$\sigma(\alpha) = \left(\sum_{i=1}^k \text{length}(\beta_i)\right) - k$$ and $$\operatorname{sgn}(\alpha) = (-1)^{\sigma(\alpha)}$$
Or is $\sigma(\alpha)$ defined differently as $$\sigma(\alpha) = \left(\sum_{i=1}^k \text{length}(\beta_i) - k\right)$$
 
12:57 PM
Hi. Let $X$, $Y$, $Z$ be random variables with $0<c_1<Z<c_2<\infty$ a.s. I'm dealing with $|E[X\exp(i Y/Z)]|$, where $i^2=-1$. Is there some way to get a nontrivial upper bound for it that would still contain $X$ and $Y$ but not $Z$?
 
 
1 hour later…
2:26 PM
@Julius like E[|X|] ?
 
Problem: Suppose that $V$ is a vector space and $S,T \in \mathcal{L}(V,V)$ are such that $S(V) \subseteq \ker T$. Prove that $(ST)^2 = 0$....By definition $T(V) \subseteq V$, so $S(T(V)) \subseteq S(V) \subseteq \ker T$, where the last set inclusion follows from the hypothesis. Thus we have $S(T(V)) \subseteq \ker T$, but taking the image of both sides under $T$ yields $T(S(T(V)) \subseteq T(\ker T) = \{0\}$, proving that $T(S(T(V))) = \{0\}$ and therefore $S(T(S(T(V)))) = \{0\}$.
This says that, for every $v \in V$, we have $0 = STSTv = (ST)^2v$ so that $(ST)^2=0$.
Does this sound right?
It seems that I was able to prove something stronger, namely that $TST=0$, which of of course implies $(ST)^2 =0$.
Do I have that terminology right? If proposition $p$ implies $q$, then we say $p$ is stronger than $q$, right?
Or do we say that $p$ is weaker? Anyone?
 
2:47 PM
Actually, you don't need the T(V) step, all you need is showing TS=0 then when composing STST, the TS bit vanishes and the conclusion is concluded
So TST=0 is true because TS=0 is true
 
Man, it'd be nice if this room rendered MathJax :^/
 
@Secret Ha, I actually just proved that. I was thinking to myself, I wonder if I can prove something weaker (stronger?) than $TST=0$.
Would you happen to know the correct terminology?
 
let me check...
 
thank you secret!
 
2:51 PM
I can't remember if $p$ is said to be weaker or stronger than $q$.
 
15
Q: Precise definition of "weaker" and "stronger"?

usulIf I say that $A$ is stronger than $B$, do I mean that $A \Rightarrow B$, or that $B \Rightarrow A$? (Or something else?) I feel like I have seen both usages in literature, which is confusing. Thoughts based on intuition: $A \Rightarrow B$ means $A$ is a special case of $B$ -- $B$ is more gen...

So, the thing that has more implication, and the converse is not true, then it is stronger
So $P \implies Q$ and $Q \not\implies P$ means $P$ is stronger
 
@Secret Ah, very nice! That's what I suspected. Thanks for the link
 
@jaco
@JacobP.J it would be $ {x^3\over 3} + {1\over3}x + c $
 
 
1 hour later…
4:14 PM
Hi. Suppose $a_{n,N} \geq 0$. Is there some relatively weak condition on $\sum_n a_{n,N}$ that would imply $a_{n,N}\to 0$ as $N\to\infty$ for each $n$? Of course $\lim_{N\to\infty}\sum_n a_{n,N}=0$ works but it's too strong. Is there anything weaker?
 
@LeakyNun bonsoir, s'il vous plait connaissez vous une suite de Cauchy dans $(\mathcal{C}(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{R}),||.||_{\infty})$ mais pas convergente
 
4:35 PM
@PolineSandra quel est le norm de $e^x$?
 
$+\infty$
 
ca c'est permet?
 
je cherche une suite qui est de cauchy
 
$K{_\phi}= \phi(s,t)\phi(1-s,t)=\zeta(t)^{log(s)}\zeta(t)^{log(1-s)}=\zeta(t)^{log(s)+log(1‌​-s)}$
support for the solution space for $K_\phi=0?$
 
j'ai trouvé dans un livre que $(\mathcal{C}(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{R}),||.||_{\infty})$ est de banach. @LeakyNun
 
4:47 PM
ta livre permet que ||quelque chose|| = infinite?
 
$\zeta(t)$ is the riemann zeta function by the way
 
@LeakyNun non il dit rien il l'a juste utiliser dans un exercice
 
comment definit-il ta livre un norm?
 
positive, inégalité triangulaire, $N(\lambda x)=|\lambda| N(x)$, $N(x)=0\Longleftrightarrow x=0$
 
$C(\Bbb R)$ with the $\|\cdot\|_{\infty}$ norm isn't even a normed vector spacce with the usual definitions @PolineSandra
 
4:56 PM
$K{_\phi}= \phi(s,t)\phi(1-s,t)=\zeta(t)^{log(s)}\zeta(t)^{log(1-s)}=\zeta(t)^{log(s)+log(1‌​‌​-s)}$. $s,t \in \Bbb C$
where does $K_\phi=0$ ?
specifically, where do the non trivial zeros live?
do they live along the vertical y-axis?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti where i can found the proof please
 
If $f(x)=x$ for all $x$ what's $\|f\|_{\infty}$?
 
$\infty$, but i dont ses that the norme must ne finite
 
$$\sqrt{\frac{f+1}{f+2}}\lvert ⟲\rangle + \sqrt{\frac{1}{f+2}}\lvert ⟳\rangle$$
there's always something funny about seeing squareroot expressions like these
 
@Secret does my question make sense
 
5:01 PM
@PolineSandra Norms are functions $V\to\Bbb R$ usually
 
I am the wrong person to ask about anything riemannian zeta
 
okay but
 
I cannot even get my head around irrational proof of pi yet
 
And there's no $\infty$ in $\Bbb R$
 
5:04 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti but one time i find an exercise of metric space for let E,d be a metric space where d is not bounded
 
Sure, but not bounded and infinite are very different!
For example the usual absolute value on $\Bbb R$ isn't bounded, but there is no $x\in\Bbb R$ with $|x|=\infty$
 
I'm just trying to understand these solutions
I don't think one needs to necessarily be an expert on the riemann zeta function to answer this
just trying to understand the support of the solution space
 
I don't think you can say much about where in the real axis, other than in (-1,1) where the nontrivial zeros lie as shown in the 2nd and 4th line with a squareroot sign
the inequalities of $s$ meanwhile suggests the imaginary part lies some distance away from the real strip (-1,1)
 
5:21 PM
that's the solution space for only $\phi(s,t)=\zeta(t)^{log(s)}$
so I'm thinking if you do the following multiplication: $K{_\phi}= \phi(s,t)\phi(1-s,t)=\zeta(t)^{log(s)}\zeta(t)^{log(1-s)}=\zeta(t)^{log(s)+log(1‌​‌​-s)}$ the square roots might cancel or the resulting solution space might be nicer to work with
 
si de cant even find a Cauchy sequence which do not converge in this space @LeakyNun
@AlessandroCodenotti
 
how will $\zeta(t)^{\log (s(1-s))}$ be any simpler
 
yeah maybe not, it's more complicated probably
 
@AlessandroCodenotti de can't construct a cauchy sequençe
 
5:38 PM
lol irrotational number
 
lol
I don't understand the inequality completely
I tried drawing a diagram
and shading the solution space
 
Could somebody suggest an algebra book? Or any other reference. I'm primarily looking for problems. We're using Artin as our text
 
@AnotherJohnDoe Doesn't Artin have problems?
 
5:54 PM
XD I'm looking for additional practice
 
Ok, for group theory there is this set I created a long time ago pure.au.dk/portal/files/56984875/exercises.pdf
 
Thanks!
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum can you help me understand the inequality. I'm trying to draw a diagram
using the real(s) axis and the im(s) axis
 
@Ultradark Hi which inequality?
Hi @TobiasKildetoft
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum Hi
 
5:59 PM
hi @Ted
 
Hi @MikeM ... progressing?
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum the two that involve the non trivial zeros
 
hi @Tobias, @Rudi
 
Hi @TedShifrin!
 
@TedShifrin Hi
 
6:00 PM
Artin has excellent problems, by the way.
 
@Ultradark pls a link (I contracted a scrolling weakness)
 
The draft was sent yesterday. Now I work on research statement, CV, ... for a week or so.
 
@AnotherJohnDoe: So you're looking for more routine problems?
 
That was my impressions as well. I might start using some of them for inspiration for extra problems
 
Excellent, @MikeM.
 
6:01 PM
and constantly refreshing my email
 
LOL @MikeM
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum
 
After the lecture today a student asked me why he was having so much trouble proving something. Reason was that it was not true, and he was trying to prove it because I had accidently left out a word in one of the exercises.
 
Bad, bad @Tobias
You should instruct your students that you're fallible and that they win if they give a counterexample to something as stated :P
 
@Ultradark not an inequality, its a more like a mess. @TobiasKildetoft I had the feeling that
 
6:02 PM
@TedShifrin They should know by now how fallible I am
 
@AnotherJohnDoe: I'm not very fond of it, but lots of people like Fraleigh's algebra book, and it has decent exercises. But Artin is alone in integrating all the linear algebra into the algebra course.
 
there should be some correspondence between normal subgroups ($N$) and irreps of a group $G$.
 
@Tobias: I would think so. But a counterexample should be accepted.
 
By virtue of $G\to G/N$ we have homomorphisms
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum why is it a mess
 
6:03 PM
@TedShifrin Ohh, certainly (it was not an exercise to be handed in, just one to be discussed in a session with the TA)
 
@Tobias: Yet another funny UGA math coincidence. I ended up playing bridge last week with a relatively new bridge player. His name seemed familiar, and turns out he knew me, too. He'd been an algebra postdoc of Carlson's back in the 90's!! Ha.
 
Ohh, I see. Did the TA figure out how to fix it?
 
I don't know. I wrote an email to them mentioning it as soon as I left the lecture, and I updated the exercise on BlackBoard as soon as I was at a computer again
 
I expect something like $a<b$ but thats some odd picture I cant get into congruence. Tell me what $a$ and what $b$?
 
6:05 PM
Of course, my students usually hated the "Prove or give a counterexample" questions in homework and exams.
 
@TedShifrin, not necessarily routine, just some more; there don't seem to be too many in Artin??
 
But there was a TA session yesterday, so I assume they did not get around to that exercise (or maybe they just didn't notice that the word was missing)
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum where do you see $a$ and $b$?
 
@AnotherJohn:Wow, I think there are plenty in Artin. If you can do even half of his, you are mastering the subject. But Fraleigh has different levels. You can also look at Dummit & Foote, which has zillions of exercises. It's typically used as a beginning graduate book, but it's only slightly more advanced than Artin.
 
6:06 PM
@Ultradark nowhere, thats the problem
 
hey demonic Alessandro. Still on holiday?
 
The exercise was to show that if all elements $g$ of a group satisfy $g^p = e$ for some fixed prime $p$ then the group can be turned into a vector space over $\mathbb{F}_p$. Of course the missing word is "abelian".
 
@Ultradark in my understanding an inequality is somtheing of the form $a\le b$. But I do not see that here. So I ask you what is $a$ and what is $b$ in your inequality.
 
Oh, I suppose $F_p*F_p$ is a thing. :)
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum I'm just trying to understand what the image means
the solution space
 
6:09 PM
@TedShifrin Or just upper triangular unipotent matrices over $\mathbb{F}_p$.
 
Yuppers.
 
@Ultradark you don't understand what the image means and also don't understand what that image means
 
(ohh, that free product also has elements of infinite order)
 
@TedShifrin, I have no way to compare, of course, but I just felt I could perhaps use some more practice. Thank you for your suggestions! I shall check them out
 
@TobiasKildetoft any idea?
 
6:10 PM
Oh yeah, I was stooopid.
@AnotherJohnDoe: Out of curiosity, where are you in school?
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum I don't understand what the image means
 
@TedShifrin Nope, I'm back to Italy
 
@Ultradark so me not either.
 
Did you have fun adventuring, @Alessandro?
 
@TedShifrin, I didn't understand
 
6:11 PM
@Rudi_Birnbaum I am not sure what sort of corresponence you mean. There is a correspondence between (some) irreps of the group and of the quotient
 
@AnotherJohnDoe: I was curious where you go to school.
 
And any irrep defines a normal subgroup (its kernel). But plenty of irreps will have the same kernel
 
@TobiasKildetoft "There is a correspondence between (some) irreps of the group and of the quotient" which?
 
The irreps of $G$ with $N$ in their kernel and all irreps of $G/N$
 
@TedShifrin bonsoir s'il vous plait $(\mathcal{C}(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{R}),||.||_{\infty})$ es complet?
 
6:13 PM
@TobiasKildetoft yes.
 
@TedShifrin Sure, it was very good! Apart from the fact that I needed an unplanned visit to the hospital during my last night there, but it's nothing too serious, a week of antibiotics and I'll be as good as new :D
 
Oh dear :(
 
I'd rather not say :/
 
@Poline: Je ne comprends pas. $\mathcal C(\Bbb R,\Bbb R)$, c'est quoi?
OK, @AnotherJohnDoe.
 
@TobiasKildetoft that one I do not get .
 
6:16 PM
@TedShifrin l'espace de fonctions continues de R dans R
 
@TedShifrin can you allocate all your brain power into my question for a few minutes
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum an irrep of $G/N$ is "the same" as an irrep of $G$ which has $N$ contained in its kernel.
 
@Poline: alors, ça ne faut pas de sens. $f(x)=x$. $\|f\|$ est quoi?
 
I have a deja vu
 
@TobiasKildetoft oh sure. OK thanks!
 
6:17 PM
@Rudi_Birnbaum do you think my question is too much of a mess to do anything with
 
@Ultradark: What question is that?
 
@Ultradark I don't see the inequality
@Ultradark I doubt there is a real question (which makes sense).
 
@TedShifrin oui c'est + l'infinie, mais peut on trouver une suite de Cauchy non convergente si toute fois on ne fait pas attention au fait qu'elle ne soit pas finie
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum watch me
I will show you that impossible is nothing
 
@TedShifrin Ted ! I kinda need some help with from you wisdom :D
 
6:20 PM
@Ultradark can you mathjax your inequality in a new post?
 
Mais c'est pas un espace normé si la norme n'est pas finie.
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum yes
 
I'm a little busy at the moment @Kasmir.
 
@Ultradark then please go on
 
okay thanks anyway
-.-
 
6:21 PM
@Ultradark the file you link does not make any sense to me w/o further explanations
 
@Poline: On veut parler peut-être des fonctions bornées et continues?
 
@TedShifrin my question is linked above
 
@Ultradark: Definitely NOT for me.
 
okay lol
 
6:24 PM
@Ultradark not for me either
 
why?
who is it for?
 
@Ultradark in addition to that I see no way to solve it I miss also the motivation paragraph
 
So am planning to study more analysis in the future, first am gonnaa start with Rudin course, after that , should i go to topology , ODE , functional analys or what course seems most logical , by that i mean , a direct continuation from what has been presented in Rudin
also is it possible to do galos theory direct after knowing rings and groups ?
galois*
 
I would recommend topology after Rudin analysis. I don't know what that ODE course is. I would have recommended Galois theory before commutative algebra. Field theory/Galois theory is naturally what comes after groups/rings.
 
@Rudi_Birnbaum okay I will put the motivation paragraph in
 
6:33 PM
@TedShifrin Thanks you Ted <3
 
@TedShifrin j'ai démontré que c'est espace est complet de la meme manière avec la quelle on démontre que C([a,b],R) est complet
 
Alors, je ne sais pas, @Poline.
 
Morning @TedShifrin
 
hi @Faust
 
RE: Up (Meanwhile I don't recall bombarding people with a lot of questions when I was investigating division by zero, which is... strange)
 
6:38 PM
@Poline: Si $\|f_n\|$ est finie pour tout $n$ et $\{f_n\}$ est Cauchy, il faut que la famille de fonctions soit bornée.
 
?
 
Are you feeling better, @Faust?
 
yeah im feeling good again today
hopefully it lasts
no more hospital1
 
I sure hope.
 
Thanks
 
6:39 PM
You back to doing math?
 
crushing it =)
no homework
left
 
Even in manifolds?
 
havent got an assignment yet lol done 2 in graph theory already
 
Lazy faculty don't assign enough homework in grad courses. It's a big, big mistake (IMHO).
 
yeah i basically only have 1 non grad course this semester other than my 2 japanese classes
 
6:41 PM
@Faust: Were you doing some basic Banach space type analysis? I've forgotten.
 
yeah mostly cantor sets compltely disconnected topological spaces
with a dynamical system
 
OK, not relevant to Poline's question.
 
can u help with C* algebras?
 
I should code the cantor set into my number plotter just to see how it compares with the rationals...
 
For public consumption (and for people who don't speak/read French). She asked this: Consider the space of continuous functions $\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$, and define a pseudonorm to be $\|f\| = \sup\{|f(x)|\}$ (allowing the value $\infty$). Why is this space not complete?
I can't, @Faust. I know nothing.
 
6:45 PM
lol lies on the know nothing
 
otherwise I think I now have a pretty good idea what generic $G_{\delta}$ sets look like now with the help of liuoville numbers and the set of irrationals
they are incredibly spongy, where each solid line contains countably many level deep cluster of lines in it. Thus even though under any magnification you only ever see one line of one pixel thickness, there are in fact uncountably many lines in that one pixel
until of course, you decided to use a $\mathfrak{c}$ magnifying glass..., then suddenly, you only see finitely many lines
 
7:43 PM
Hi, I have a question about a magic trick I learned when I was younger, that I know it must have some mathematical explanation, but I don't know which one (and it may be quite simple actually). Would a question like that be considered on- or off-topic?
checking the tour, it looks like it would be ok, but wanted to confirm before I publish
 
@LeakyNun math.stackexchange.com/questions/2923195/… please check it if you have any idea about it.
@SohamChowdhury math.stackexchange.com/questions/2923195/… do you have any idea about this?
 
no idea
 
fine sir
 
8:15 PM
@TedShifrin they supplement each other
 
8:28 PM
@AlvaroMontoro I think you should just post the question on the site. It is OK.
 
 
2 hours later…
10:28 PM
@MatheinBoulomenos update on my proof
it's essentially different
so my new proof goes like this
Theorem: Let $F$ be a field and $f,g \in F[X]$ such that $g$ is irreducible. Let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be the splitting fields of $f$ and $g$ respectively, and let the roots of $g$ be $b_1, \cdots, b_n$. Further assume that we have a map $\varphi : F(b_1) \to K_1$. Then, $g$ splits in $K_1$.
Proof: consider the following diagram
where the first collection of maps $F \to F(b_j)$ are the usual maps
$K_{1j}$ is a copy of $K_1$
@loch maybe you would like to check my proof
the second collection of maps $F(b_j) \to K_{1j}$ is given by $\varphi \circ \sigma_j$ where $\sigma_j : F(b_j) \to F(b_1)$ is the usual map.
the third collection of maps $F(b_j) \to K_2$ are the usual maps
$B$ is the $F$-tensor product of the copies of $K_1$ quotient by a maximal ideal
$K_{1j} \to B$ is the canonical inclusions followed by a projection
$\Omega$ is $B \otimes_F K_2$ quotient some maximal ideal
Claim: for every $i$ and $j$, the image of the inclusion $K_{1i} \to B$ is a subset of the image of the inclusion $K_{1j} \to B$. Proof of claim: Note that $K_{1i} = F(a_1, \cdots, a_m)$ where $f(a_k) = 0$. Each generator $a_k$ is sent to a root of $f$, i.e. another generator, establishing the claim.
and as a result, $B$ is non-canonically isomorphic to $K_1$
Now, $K_2 = F(b_1, \cdots, b_n)$, and the image of $b_j$ in $\Omega$ is contained in the image of $B$ in $\Omega$, so the image of $K_2$ in $\Omega$ is contained in the image of $B$ in $\Omega$, so we have a map $K_2 \to B \cong K_1$, qed.
 
10:51 PM
UGH.
 
@TedShifrin ?
 
What I said.
 
you only said ugh
 
I still haven't figured out the damn statement.
This sounds a lot like normality, but it's obfuscated.
 
Corollary: every splitting field is normal
 
10:54 PM
So you're trying to give a different proof of that?
 
essentially
24 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
Theorem: Let $F$ be a field and $f,g \in F[X]$ such that $g$ is irreducible. Let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be the splitting fields of $f$ and $g$ respectively, and let the roots of $g$ be $b_1, \cdots, b_n$. Further assume that we have a map $\varphi : F(b_1) \to K_1$. Then, $g$ splits in $K_1$.
 
Don't you need to say something about that "map" $\varphi$? Is it injective?
I have been reading that. You don't need to reprint it for me.
 
my statement isn't really that obfuscated, it's what you get after unfold the definition of normal
every field homomorphism is injective
 
Huh?
 
Kernel is an ideal, so either 0 or the whole thing
But it can't be 0 because 1->1
 
10:55 PM
so I just use "map" synonomously with embedding
synonemous
synonymous
 
Right. OK ... so a conjugate of $b_1$ has to live in $K_1$.
 
right
 
And then it's just the standard result.
OK, proceed.
I mean, not with me. :)
I'm trying to figure out something about Kähler geometry that I made a glib comment about, and now I don't understand my own comment.
 
lol that happens
@Daminark how does my proof look?
 
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