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12:00 AM
if we spend hours working on this, we'll find an elegant clever way that saves us the trouble of using brute force!
 
I'm sure I can get some geometrical thingie to get it but
it is a bit late
 
hey Semi want to go back on that inverse Laplace transform, it's on the practice final lol, I made some progress
$\mathcal L^{-1} \left\{ { \dfrac{\operatorname{coth}(\pi s /2)}{s^2+1} }\right\}$
fun fun fun. so it's actually not so bad
 
if you conjugate by multiplication by $i$
 
the residues at $s^2 = -1$ are $0$
 
you obtain constraints that are invariant by conjugation
so the rotated thing is a real Mobius transform
 
12:04 AM
and the other poles are at $2 i n$ for every integer $n$
 
maybe that simplifies things ?
for exmple it tells that the images of $0$ and $\infty$ are real
well no, purely imaginary
 
i'll think about it mercio
at which the residues are , well
expanding up to second order
$\cosh(\pi s /2) = 1 + (\pi s/2)^2/2! + \mathcal{O}(s^4)$
 
you can get the image of $-i$ easily
since it's onthe unit circle
and you know the image of that
and that the imaginary axis is sent to the imaginary axis
 
and $\sinh(\pi s /2) = \pi s /2 + \mathcal{O}(s^3)$
 
$\dfrac{2+6iz}{z+3i}$
Confirmed ^
 
12:08 AM
: o
 
Now you just need to reverse-engineer that
 
nice! how'd you do it
 
Last step was Wolfram Alpha
 
wait the other fixpoint has to also be on the imaginary axis
hmmmm
(it is $2i$ but i'm trying to see it geometrically)
 
so the residue of $\coth(\pi s/2)$ is $2/\pi$ at every pole, so you have the residue of the laplacand (lol) is $\displaystyle \frac{2}{\pi}\dfrac{1}{1-4n^2}$
 
12:11 AM
nice
 
I feel like we should be able to use Gaussian elimination somehow
 
@AkivaWeinberger you can write that as $f(z)=i+5i\dfrac{z-i}{z+3i}$
which is...nice?
 
I think that long ago I had a geometric procedure to get the fixpoints of a Mobius transform given 3 paris of inputs-outputs
:|
 
Möbius transformations are just linear transformations on $\Bbb C^2$, quotiented out by $[x,y]\sim[\lambda x,\lambda y]$, $\lambda\in\Bbb C$, right?
 
I found that $-i$ is sent to $-4i$ because of the circle going through $i,-2,2$
 
12:13 AM
nice
 
Akiva yes, in fact we have that any mobius transform is equivalent (not uniquely) to $\begin{bmatrix} A & B \\ C & D \end{bmatrix}$ on , I think, $\mathbb CP^2$?
 
oooh i know !!
it conserves right angles
and that's how we can find the image of infinity
because the unit circle is orthogonal to the real axis
 
or maybe $\mathbb C P^1$
 
and so, their image must also be orthogonal
 
well we kinda knew that because mobius transformations are conformal, no?
 
12:17 AM
and on the image of the real axis you find the images of $0$ and $\infty$
I still don't see how $2i$ is the second fixed point
geogebra doesn't have "circle orthgonal to this circle and that also goes through those 2 points"
 
anyway semi, you come out with $\dfrac 2 \pi \displaystyle \sum_{n = -\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{e^{2 i n}}{1 - 4n^2}$ I think
what does it mean that a circle is orthogonal to another circle
 
Two curves are orthogonal if the tangent lines are orthogonal
at the place where they intersect
 
ah
 
oh, the second fixed point has to be on the circle containing $i,-1,-2$
so it has to be $2i$
 
$\dfrac 2 \pi \displaystyle \sum_{n = -\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{e^{2 i n t}}{1 - 4n^2}$ rather, it needs to be a function of $t$
something like that
 
does anybody know of a good proof to Poincarè's Lemma?
 
red is the image of blue there mercio?
 
no, red is the image of red
and blue is the image of blue
 
sorry im not sure how to read this image :(
 
I'm not certain why the image of circle I A A' sohuld be the same circle
:s
it was making sense while i was drawing it
 
12:34 AM
well that can't be right, because if a Mobius map has 3 distinct fixed points on $\mathbb C \cup \{ \infty \}$, then that's the identity map
 
the image of circle IAB is IA'B'
those are the red circles
 
so a whole circle cant map to the same cicle
 
it can
 
then there are fixed points all along the circle ....
 
not necessarily
maybe all the points are moved along the circle except 2
 
12:36 AM
oh, rotation
uhh hmmm
right
 
the image of the real axis has to be acircle going through A' and B' that is also orthogonal to the big red circle
so that gives you the blue circle
and with it you get the images of $0$ and $\infty$
but i can't make sense fo the green circle anymore
I think it only works because the derivative at the fixed points is real
and you can tell it is real because the imaginary axis is conserved
so near $i$ there is no rotation of the angles
so the image of the green circle must e tangent ot the green circle at $i$
 
aanyway, I think I should just set up cross ratios
 
and also has to contain A'
 
it gets really ugly though
 
which forces it t obe green circle itself
 
12:40 AM
though you can eliminate 2 of the parameters with the 3 equations in 4 unknowns
 
but geometry is pretty
throws circles to everybody
 
except the exam is timed :P
 
a hwell
that's a powerful argument
 
still though, $(z,-1,i,1) = (w,-2,i,2)$ isn't fun
in terms of cross ratios
 
o..o
 
12:43 AM
I tried and it got miserable
 
you can also do uit with determinants
 
please share
 
$\det \begin{pmatrix} zw & z & w & 1 \\ 2 & -1 & -2 & 1 \\ 2 & 1 & 2 & 1 \\ -1 & i & i & 1 \end{pmatrix} = 0$
 
what is this creature
 
you just put $(zw,z,w,1)$ for each point
you develop it and do lots of computations and it literally tells you the equation
 
12:47 AM
but where are the coefficients
 
also I wrote $w$ for the image of $z$ and not the other way around
the coefficients are the $3$ by $3$ minors
imagine what you et if you develop the first row
$zw$ times something + $z$ times something + etc = 0
the somethings are the coefficients
:|
 
hmm
 
I prefer doing the thing with all the circles
 
by my lights, the fastest route is to write $f(z)=i+(z-i)/(cz+d)$ then require $f(1)=2$, $f(-1)=-2$ and solve for $c,d$
it's not great but it's not terrible
you get $c+d = (1-i)/(2-i)$ and $d-c=(-1-i)/(-2-i)$
 
doable
my summation is wrong because I want to have $\pi$ somewhere in the exponential so I can write it without $i$ using Euler's formula
meh
 
1:40 AM
bleh, I think I'm done studying for today
there's always tomorrow
I'll leave off with the question I gave up on:
Let $f \in L^1(\mathbb R^n), p >1, q \in (1..p)$. Suppose:
$\forall t > 0, |\{x \in \mathbb R^n: |f(x)|>0\}| \le (1+t)^{-p}$. Then prove $f \in L^q$.
off to play vidjagames/cry/have dinner
 
 
3 hours later…
4:43 AM
in The h Bar, 6 mins ago, by Secret
> Define $\mathcal{O}$ to be a megalomaniac controprositute such that the glomeralogy of the silverton is given by the following esperatorationism:
Gibberish at its finest
 
indeed
 
> Let $\tau$ be a disteranion colmeralogy, defined as following:
$$\tau = \frac{sarxiv}{\infty} \aleph_{\omega} \frac{us}{t}\to \leftarrow$$
We first wrote the chain of katombo, given us follows:
$$\to \leftarrow \leftarrow \infty \to \fork {rsv}{usdvt} \defork stuv$$
Apply the Operator L to the chain gives:
$$L (\to \leftarrow \leftarrow \infty \to \fork {rsv}{usdvt} \defork stuv) = \circ udv$$
The next step is to solve for the roots of the above. We achieve that by acting the pseudomsticular operator $\mho\Omega$
$$\mho (\circ udv) \Omega = \int^{H^1(dis)}_{\Bbb{ESDV}} rdf(\mu)d\mu$$
which give us the following sucurrent relational:
$$\int odv = e^{\int ods T_{\mu}^{a^{sdvt}}}$$
Expanding gives:
$$\int odv = \text{############## @%#%####} [][][][] I(x,y)\aleph_{s}\omega^{\omega} $$
Dividing both sides by zero thus yield the required results:
$$\frac{\int odv }{0 Px} = \text{Hail Topology}$$
$\square$
 
5:02 AM
 
that sounds like a very annoying recursive relation to evaluate
$$1000 + \frac{(x-1000)}{7} + 2000 + \frac{(x-1000 - \frac{(x-1000)}{7})}{7} + 3000 + \frac{(x-1000 - \frac{(x-1000)}{7} - 2000 - \frac{(1000 - \frac{(x-1000)}{7})}{7})}{7} + \cdots$$
 
@Secret But we are also told that each brother gets the same amount
So those first two terms are equal
 
hmm... so that means we can find x, the amount of land being split
But I think the hardest part about that question is to solve for the number of brothers one need to solve an equation of the form $\sum_{k=1}^{n} f(k) = nx$ where $x$ is found by equating the first two terms
 
i think it is the sum of the first two terms...
...so each pair of terms are equal.
 
@skull Right, I used the term "term" loosely there to actually refer to two terms.
 
5:16 AM
kk
:-)
looks like a jee question
 
not surprising as they love nested functions for some reaosns
 
and they love to test for how fast you can come up with an answer
 
i get why they do that, i guess
lots of people apply, but much fewer accepted
so you need a pretty high threshold in order to winnow it down
 
some say, it's the most competitive exam; second place goes to the med school admissions test
 
6:27 AM
I totally agree
 
A J
@BalarkaSen Kindly keep the language family-friendly. Thank you.
 
sorry @AJ i forgot about that when i starred it
great satire, nonetheless :-)
 
7:10 AM
@Twink 36000 and 6?
 
 
1 hour later…
8:19 AM
Hi, I want to find critical points of $f(x,y) = x\cdot\sin\left(y\right)+ax^2+by^2$. After computing $D_xf$ and setting it zero I obtained $\sin(y)+2ax=0$ and $x\cos(y)+2by=0$. How would you approach this non-linear system of equations and solve it?
 
9:18 AM
@Gibbs Hi, why did you change my question?
 
9:30 AM
I think Secret broke
 
@mercio How can you tell the broken version from the usual nonsense?
 
it's nonsense squared
 
@AJ Oh yeah sorry about that.
 
If my Hessian matrix of a critical point is the zero matrix, what can I say about this point? Is it a maximum, minimum or saddle point?
 
you can say nothing of any sort except that the point hates you
 
9:44 AM
lol
 
Oh nice :D @mercio T
Isn't there another criterium or so?
 
are you looking at your map $f$ at $(0,0)$ ?
 
yeah
 
are you sure that the hessian is the zero matrix ?
 
I mean yeah pretty sure, the function is $f(x,y)=x^3-y^3$
 
9:56 AM
oh your function changed then
 
yeah sorry I didn't get much out of the first one
 
Is there a notion equivalent to the field of fractions for semirings?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Hmm, no idea actually
Does the construction even always work like it should?
 
well then I suppose you have to use the secret forbidden technique of looking at the signs of your function evaluated at a bunch of points close to $(0,0)$ in hope of it giving you ideas about what happens
 
@Tobias I'm not sure. I'm interested in a very nice case actually, namely the semiring of ideals of a Dedekind domain
 
9:59 AM
Okay. So in my case is it actually a saddle point at zero? Since it doesn't look like a saddle because it goes down in two adjacent directions and up in the two other ones @mercio
 
I wanted to know if fractionals ideals can be introduced via a field of fractions like construction
 
yup
 
okay thanks :)
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Hmm, is there any obstruction to just extending the addition to make it a ring?
 
don't you have $x+x = x$ in that semi-ring ?
 
10:01 AM
(Also, is that semiring even calcellative?)
@mercio Ahh, right, so doing Grothendieck group stuff would kill everything
 
I'm not sure about ring of fractions but you can have fractional ideals
 
Cancellative means $a+b=a+c\implies b=c$, right?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I meant for the multiplication
 
I don't think it holds for the addition either
 
Right, it does not hold for addition at all
 
10:05 AM
Pick $b,c$ coprime with $a$. I'm not sure about the multiplication
 
But actually, it seems like it should hold for the multiplication by unique factorization.
 
yeah
 
Oh, right, that makes sense
 
as far as multiplication is concerned, ideals form a free monoid
 
in which case, you can do Grothendieck group of the multiplicative monoid to get a "semifield of fractions"
 
10:06 AM
those are called fractional ideals I'm pretty sure
 
assuming this plays well with the addition, which my guess would be that it should.
 
you can also describe them as finitely generated $O$-submodules of $K$ I think
 
I'll look up what the Grothendieck group is later and see if it works, thanka for your help! @Tobias @mercio
@mercio That's the usual definition
 
:|
well then you can easily define $+$ and $\times$ on that set
 
Actually if everything goes according to the plan that Grothendieck group should actually be the ideal group of the number field we got the Dedekind domain from?
(Assuming the Dedeking domain was the ring of integers of a number field)
 
10:14 AM
 
 
1 hour later…
11:18 AM
I have a terminology question (topology context if it matters): If we have two maps with the same domain, we can combine them to get $(f,g)$ with the same domain and the product codomain. And if we have two maps with arbitrary domains we can make $f\times g$ from the product of the domains to the product of the codomains. Are both of these called "product functions"? How should I refer to these two different operations?
 
@MarkS. Hmm, so the first one the obtained by composing the second with the inclusion of the diagonal. So maybe something like diagonal product?
 
That sounds good to me. My one concern is that the Wikipedia page for product (in an arbitrary category) suggests that it's fairly standard to call the first one the product morphism. But if topologists generally call the second one "the product of the maps" then I don't want to go against that
 
Hmm, not actually sure there
 
Ok, thanks for your thoughts. I'll try to check a selection of topology books later.
 
11:40 AM
\o semic
 
12:04 PM
Why is the parametrization of an ellipse $(a\cos(t),b\sin(t))$? How can I see it from the equation $x^2/a^2 + y^2/b^2 = 1$?
 
@philmcole are you comfortable with the parametrization of a unit circle?
 
 
2 hours later…
1:45 PM
Hi guys, if $A = [0,a]\times[0,b]$ and $(X,Y)$ is a random variable in $A$ with distribution $p_{X,Y}(x,y) = \frac{1}{ba}$ shouldn't result $\longbar{(X-\mu_X)(Y - \mu_Y)} = 0$?
I've done the computation by myself and it is seems to be true
other than it's obvious to me
 
@user8469759 I presume you mean $\overline{(X-\mu_X)(Y-\mu_Y)}$
 
yes
 
is it right?
 
I think so. The most obvious case occurs if you do a linear transformation to map $A$ to $[-1,1]^2$
 
1:55 PM
ok because I've implemented a naive algorithm in C++ and it doesn't seem to work
so I was wondering wheather or not I got something wrong
 
the point is really that there are four possibilities: $X$ and $Y$ both exceed the mean, only one of the two does (in two ways), or neither do
 
@Semiclassical sorry?
 
first and last make the product positive, middle two make it negative
 
point of what? I got lost
 
Point of $\overline{(X-\mu_X)(Y-\mu_Y)}=0$
Take the example of $a=b=2$.
Then $\mu_X=\mu_Y=1$, and we're left to compute $\overline{(X-1)(Y-1)}$
A quarter of the time, both X and Y will exceed 1. A quarter of the time, X will and Y won't, etc.
 
2:00 PM
ah I see
 
first case means that the product is positive, second and third that it's negative, and the last case would be it being positive agian
so it shouldn't be too surprising if the expected product comes out as zero
A simpler case for testing purposes, though, might be the uniform distribution on $[-1,1]^2$
in that case, $\mu_X=\mu_Y=0$
 
isn't something like this supposed to implement the covariance?
 
for (auto i = 0; i < intensity.rows; ++i) {
		for (auto j = 0; j < intensity.cols; ++j) {
			w = intensity.at<float>(i, j);
			sigmax2 += (i-mean[1])*(i-mean[1])*w;
			sigmaxy += (i-mean[1])*(j-mean[0])*w;
			sigmay2 += (j-mean[0])*(j-mean[0])*w;
		}
	}
 
oh, your code
dunno. i'm not so familiar with c++
 
2:03 PM
yes, the relevant part
doesn't matter what language
just this line
sigmaxy += (i-mean[1])*(j-mean[0])*w;
assuming $w$ is always the same, like $\frac{1}{ab}$
 
How many samples are you taking?
And how far off of zero is it?
 
$0 \leq i, j \leq 4$
 
That's not a lot of samples.
 
no, but it's completely wrong the result
 
actually, is this actually a random sample here? Seems like you're just plugging in various values of i,j
 
2:07 PM
that's because it's supposed to compute...
 
in which case appealing to probability theory is superfluous
 
$$\overline{(I-\mu_I)(J - \mu_J)} = \sum_{0 \leq i < 5} \sum_{0 \leq j < 5} (i - \mu_I)(j - \mu_J) \frac{1}{25}$$
 
I see.
 
basically I'm implementing that formula, in the specific case I proposed
 
well, if you're doing integer $i$ satisfying $0\leq i<5$, then that's really the discrete uniform distribution on the events $0,1,2,3,4$ with mean value $2$
in which case one can substitute $i'=i-2$, $j'=j-2$ to get the sum as $\displaystyle\sum_{i'=-2}^2 \sum_{j'=-2}^{2} i' j'/25$
which should definitely vanish, since positive products occur as often as negative products
 
2:18 PM
Is standard notation $\int_{\Omega(x_1)}\int_{\Omega(x_2)}...\int_{\Omega(x_n)} f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) dx_n...dx_2 dx_1$ or $\int_{\Omega(x_1)}\int_{\Omega(x_2)}...\int_{\Omega(x_n)} f(x_1,x_2,...,x_n) dx_1 dx_2... dx_n$?
I wanna say the former
 
ugh, i always hate worrying about that ordering
 
why does it matter?
it depends what's simpler in the context
i.e. makes calculation clearer
 
Yes but surely there is a convention?
 
yeah you just write $d^nx$?
 
That does not take ordering into account
 
2:21 PM
that's standard in physics
 
I know
 
it's less standard outside of physics as far as I know
 
oh shit is my physics showing???
 
I take the issue to be that your inner limits can be functions of the outer limits
since otherwise you wouldn't expect the integration order to matter regardless
 
@Semiclassical Sorry they are not functions, it is just bad notation. What I mean is for example $\int_{x_1=a}^{b}$
The problem is knowing which integration limit applies to which variable
 
2:26 PM
well, if you’re denoting them explicitly using x_1=a_1, x_2=a_2 etc then I again think it doesn’t matter
It’s when you don’t that I’m not sure
 
So there is no standard notation? :/
 
for instance $\int_0^1\int_0^2 f(x,y)\,dx\, dy$
 
Yea
 
Yeah, I’m not sure. Standard seems to be that you order the limits of integration opposite of the integration variables
 
2:30 PM
if $|H| =15$, why does the homomorphism $\theta$ map a 60 element group to a 24 ?element group
 
So that you can insert parentheses between the integral signs / differentials and get the same result
 
So $0,1$ is $y$ and $0,2$ for $x$?
 
Right, since inserting parens gives $\int_0^1(\int_0^2 f_, dx)dy$
I sorta hate that tbh but it does seem typical
 
I thought that was the convention, but I have seen numerous examples of the opposite (order of limits of integration = order of integration variables)
 
weird
i'll note that if you write integrals as $\int dx\,f(x)$, as is often true in physics
then you can perhaps read it as $\int_0^1 dx \int_0^2 dy\,f(x,y) = \int_0^1 dx (\int_0^2 dy\,f(x,y))$
but you really wouldn't see that either in physics
it'd be $\int_0^1 \int_0^2 dx\,dy$
 
2:38 PM
Ugh I do not like that notation
 
in which case the notation is really pretty ambiguous
@Lozansky which one specificaly?
 
$\int dx f(x)$
 
Like... why?
 
why don't we define Lebesgue integration using the Lebesgue measure on the area under curve?
 
2:40 PM
Guess it's better than the naming conventions for atomic states
 
I think I started seeing it in QM a lot, since there you commonly want expressions like like $f(p)=\langle p|f\rangle = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \langle p |x\rangle\langle x| f\rangle \,dx$
 
Yeah, Griffith's employs it quite a lot
 
what you'd then want to extract from that is the identity expansion $1=\int_{-\infty}^\infty |x\rangle \langle x |\,dx$
the problem being that, if you want to apply it, you have to shove stuff between $\langle x |$ and $dx$
 
Isn't $|x \rangle \langle x|$ an operator?
 
it is. but so is $1$, in the sense that $1f(x)=f(x)$
 
2:43 PM
I suppose
 
really it's not $1$ there but $\text{id}$
 
Hi friends, just so you all know I don't like infinite products
 
i.e. $\text{id}{f}=f$
so for that reason I think people start writing it as $\text{id}=\int_{-\infty}^\infty dx|x\rangle \langle x|$
so in that case it's more visually tidy when applying it to the right, as you'd often do
otoh, you then have it looking a bit icky when acting from the left
so it's not really a great solution
 
We should just scrap QM and forget it ever existed
 
3:24 PM
guys, is there an efficient way to determine the commutator subgroup of this group:
 
I determined the center, which makes things a little bit easier
 
instant death
 
lol is that directed at my group?
 
yes
 
3:27 PM
I already determined all the inverse elements, the order of the elements, generators, some subgroups, some left/right cosets, some quotient groups
but not sure if I can use that
my only idea now is to just start with an element, and then calculate the commutator with all the other elements
(skippings the center)
 
oO
 
@BalarkaSen I'm not sure why that makes me think of this: youtube.com/watch?v=WMMWwqwRggQ
 
I would try to find a better description of your group by now
@ShaVuklia
like maybe it is Z/24Z in disguise
then it would be easy to find the commutator subgroup
well it's not Z/24Z but maybe you get the idea
 
If $g(\sin 2t) = \sin t + \cos t $ $\forall t \in [-\pi/4, \pi/4]$, can I find $g(\cos 2x)$ (x not t) ?
 
can you find $g(0.8)$ ?
why would you say that
 
3:36 PM
@mercio yea I got a list with possibilities (groups of order 24), but a lot of them are with the semidirect product, so I'm not sure that's going to help me a lot
and it's not simple things like C24 or D24, or C2xC2xC2, so I think it must be a semidirect product
 
maybe you can just throw a computer at the group then ?
 
@mercio =$\sin (\arcsin (0.8)/2) + \cos(\arcsin (0.8)/2)$
 
yep
 
@mercio you mean to write a code?
 
either that or use a CAS that can do it
 
3:39 PM
never heard of CAS
 
computer algebra system
like maple
 
@mercio then how to find the range of $g(\cos 2x)$
 
ah I've never worked with that
but I guess programming it wouldn't be too crazy
 
the range ?
 
@mercio yes?
 
3:41 PM
programming it is certainly good practice
 
MUH
Hi everyone,
I am looking for a small study group for studying anything related to Algebraic geometry, algebraic topology, commutative algebra, functional analysis, complex analysis, geometry and topology. If anyone is interested, please let me know. We can also look for expository work afterwards.
 
maybe you should start with the range of $g$ then ?
 
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… why does the image of $\infty$ get absorbed into the constant?
oh I guess it makes that term be constant, intuitively
wait, no, I don't see it after all :(
 
@mercio its $[-\sqrt2 , \sqrt 2]$
 
probably
 
3:51 PM
and then?
 
Hey guys I need just a little help!
Really a beginner question
 

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