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12:01 AM
Yeah, don't do that...
 
you're not my mother
 
12:12 AM
Yeah, don't that do no
 
Yeah nah bad idea
 
I fixed the error
I mixed up $<$ and $>$...I blame parity invariance of classical physics
 
@Daminark I didn't get to it in time cause I wrote out too many of the detail of montel
So I only managed to start that problem
 
12:35 AM
@BalarkaSen I wonder, does Monge's circle theorem work in hyperbolic geometry? Something tells me it does
Assuming the external tangents do in fact intersect
 
Ah rip. Lol my studying for this test amounted to memorizing Riemann Mapping Theorem
 
What is.
 
Heya DogAteMy ... and Eric and Demonark
 
hi @Ted
 
You sorta back to sorta normal, Eric?
 
12:46 AM
lol no
this is a hell week
 
oh hell
 
3 midterms a paper and two presentations
 
Ah
That's pretty hellish.
 
yeah it's not good
 
Oof
@Akiva were you asking what the Riemann mapping theorem is?
Hey @Ted!
 
12:52 AM
I guess DogAteMy isn't talking much.
 
Perhaps
 
Hi I'm back
Also I looked it up
 
Oh, there's a DogAteMy.
 
oh hi
 
oh hi @Semiclassic
 
12:55 AM
Hey @Semi!
 
How would you prove that
 
The proof I know uses Montel's theorem
 
math.stackexchange.com/questions/7614/… Can you tell me why there is (mn)! instead of $(n!)^m$like @Harambe said
 
Montel's theorem says that if you have a family $\mathcal{F}$ of holomorphic functions on some domain $\Omega$ which are uniformly bounded on compact sets, then the family is normal.
The proof of that basically amounts to Cauchy integral formula
 
cauchy estimates 2 stronk
 
1:02 AM
Cauchy estimates are harmonic estimates in disguise
 
You use it to get equicontinuity, then you use Arzela-Ascoli to get that on a given compact set, you have uniformly convergent subsequences. To get a single subsequence that works for all compact sets you just do a diagonalization argument by choosing countably many increasing compact sets such that any other compact set is contained in one of them
 
Yup, applications of Cauchy like that are things I used to love to put on qualifying exams.
Or getting control on derivatives in a family ...
 
Now once you know that, and a lemma which says that the uniform limit of analytic injections is either constant or an injection, you can prove RMT. The idea of that proof is this. Let $\Omega \subsetneq \mathbb{C}$ be simply connected, then choose some $z_0 \in \mathbb{C}\setminus \Omega$. Then you can define $\log(z-z_0) = g(z)$
 
@0celo7 they're not even disguised
 
Well, they're disguised to some of us who don't live all the time in PDE land.
 
1:04 AM
@EricSilva Most people probably see complex analysis before Evans Ch. 2
 
That would include me, since I've never read Evans.
hi @MikeM
 
Fix $w\in \Omega$. You know that you can't find a sequence $z_n$ such that $g(z_n) \to g(w) + 2\pi i$, since you can exponentiate the relation to get $z_n\to w$, so $g(z_n) \to g(w)$, which is shit. So you can find a $\delta > 0$ such that $g(\Omega) \cap B(g(w) + 2\pi i, \delta) = \emptyset$.
 
i mean if youve seen both then the first thing people usually like to do is say "oh if youve seen complex this is that"
 
I mean ... I know some PDE theory, but I've never looked at Evans.
 
I agree with Eric; just because one language comes first doesn't mean the latter isn't illuminating
I do not like Evans tbh
 
1:07 AM
This lets you define $F(z) = \frac{1}{g(z) - g(w) - 2\pi i}$. It's injective, holomorphic, and bounded, so if you just translate and rescale, you get a conformal equivalence between $\Omega$ and a subset of $B(0,1)$ containing the origin. So we assume wlog that we're in that case
 
I liked a few books when I was teaching some of that stuff, but they're long gone ... I never owned Evans.
 
@MikeMiller the thing about evans is that if you have developed some of the intuition already it's very useful to look shit up
 
Oh, useful like Federer? :D
 
Evans is more transparent than that at least
 
I've always felt Evans was the place to learn, GT/Morrey/Hormander was the place to look up
 
1:10 AM
Damning with faint praise, I'd say.
 
The stuff on Sobolev spaces in Chapter 5 is done wonderfully
 
Now you let $\mathcal{F}$ be the set of holomorphic injections $\Omega \to B(0,1)$ fixing $0$. This family is obviously uniformly bounded, so it's normal by Montel. Let $s = \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} |f'(0)|$. Then $s \ge 1$ since we have the inclusion, and $s <\infty$ by Cauchy integral formula. Choose a maximizing sequence and pass to a convergent subsequence. The limit $f$ is non-constant since $|f_n'(0)| \to |f'(0)|$ and the $|f_n'(0)|$ are bounded below
 
I actually liked Trèves's introductory book. The advanced ones were ridiculous.
 
i think Evans is better to learn than the others but it's still a useful reference
 
Sure
 
1:12 AM
Actually talking about traces is good, GT commit the crime of not mentioning them
 
Taylor's books are good from what ive seen of them i think
 
So $f\in \mathcal{F}$ achieves the max (it maps into $B(0,1)$ by continuity + max modulus). Finally, if it isn't surjective, you can create another function with larger derivative at 0 by playing with Mobius transforms. Makes sense @Akiva?
 
I don't know Taylor's books, either. I was never as book-ish a person as lots of people here.
Demonark, is DogAteMy actually paying attention?
 
@Daminark Kinda? That's a lot of theory I don't know. But it's a good road map. Thanks!
 
Apparently he is
:P
 
1:14 AM
Well, thank goodness DogAteMy doesn't know all of 1st year graduate material before he starts college :P
 
now prove the big RMT for him
 
There's a big RMT?
 
\huge{RMT}
 
LOL
I think it's little/big Picard?
 
the beltrami equation solving stuff
 
1:15 AM
hmm
 
quasiconformal maps
etc etc
 
oh, yeah, generalized RMT
 
Lol I don't even know that. My undergrad complex prof never even did Montel or RMT, I just learned that because Marianna's like "Yeah you should know this, a lemma will be on the midterm" and I was like oh okay
 
You're doing OK, Demonark.
 
charlie didnt do it in my class whenever i took that either
 
1:16 AM
It's a good theorem though, 10/10
 
he did PMT tho
PNT*
i want pearl milk tea, freudian slip
 
Lol Marianna wants to do that actually, and also talk about why Riemann hypothesis can tell you all that it does about number theory
 
charlie presented the most opaque proof possible of pnt because he had no time to prove it
 
From office hours: "If I can make sure that nobody leaving this class submits a paper proving Riemann hypothesis by manipulating $\sum_{n} n^{-s}$ for $Re(s) = \frac{1}{2}$, I'm happy"
 
That sentence made no sense.
 
1:18 AM
so he had to prove the version with all the intuition squeezed out of it
maximum cleverness
 
Oh.
 
minimum understandability
 
Probably better to state a few lemmas without proof and do it intelligently.
 
i dont disagree
 
I knew you wouldn't :)
 
1:20 AM
@Daminark is it that you cant prove it this way
 
what are some big theorems that were open forever and had surprising solutions?
surprisingly simple
 
Well, that'd be manipulating a divergent sum. She said that when she was in England and edited for a journal, she got papers almost every day trying to prove RH like that. Some people even proved and disproved it in the same paper
 
@Daminark that's what I do when I'm running out of time on a test. Write everything I can think of, positive and negative, and submit
 
A+ strat
 
@Daminark I remember doing double degenerate perturbation theory in QMII. My final answer was 3 variations for the grader to choose from
maybe the same thing works for research papers...
 
1:26 AM
What'd the grader do?
 
@Daminark oh yes i see, Re(s) = 1/2 indeed
 
@Daminark the first answer was right, full credit
don't think he got to the other crap
I just did the problem multiple ways and got different answers each time
 
Lol, good thing the first answer was the correct one
 
1:43 AM
@0celo7 ugh, degenerate perturbation theory
 
hiya
I've got a question. I'm trying to show that a Hypergraph $H$ is $2-$colorable. I know that the edges of $H$ $e_i$ satisfy $\sum_{i=1}^m(1/2)^{-|e_i|}<1/2$.
 
@Semiclassical we should do some degenerate perturbation theory for fun
to see if we remember that stuff
 
I think I have an argument, it is short and goes like this. Color $V(H)$ uniformly at random. Then
$$\mathbb{P}(\text{some edge is monochromatic})\leq \sum_{i=1}^m \mathbb{P}(e_i \text{is monochromatic})=\sum_{i=1}^m(1/2)^{-|e_i|}<1/2$$
 
try doing degenerate perturbation theory for the periodic eigenvalues of $-y''(x)+(\alpha \cos x)y(x)=\lambda y(x)$
 
1:52 AM
since the probability is less than 1, there are examples where no edges are monochromatic
 
it's...not fun
 
lol unless I can write it as a 2x2 or 3x3 matrix problem, screw that
I had a 6x6 on HW once, was like wtf
 
yeah, this one is worse
it's first order degenerate perturbation theory for the levels $\lambda=\pm 1$ (in powers of $\alpha$)
actually I guess it's $\pm (2\pi)^2$ but eh details
but the next degenerate pair requires second-order degenerate pert theory
and so on and so forth to absolute misery
 
is there a recursive formula
it seems symmetric enough
 
lemme find the results, they're on the dlmf
the version they use for Mathieu's equation is $w''+(a-2q\cos 2z)w=0$, for reference (28.2.1)
 
2:03 AM
oh right this is a Mathieu equation
 
yeah
because of the factor of two, you need to consider both periodic and antiperiodic boundary conditions to get the spectrum I referenced
first are labelled as $a_n(q)$, second as $b_n(q)$
they give expansions for small $q$ here: dlmf.nist.gov/28.6
so for instance if n=6 then the two series only disagree at terms of order q^6
with the generic statement being dlmf.nist.gov/28.6#E15
(in physics, you can interpret that difference as the level splitting of the original cosine problem, and you can obtain that using WKB if you have sufficient patience...which I had to, a few years ago)
 
> My Dad’s a physician. He told me he thinks psychologists should be banned from having children because every one of them he knew used their kids to test a pet theory on child rearing, and usually ended up fucking them up.
- A Reddit comment I just found
 
they're not the only ones, I think.
 
@Semiclassical you want to ban people from having children?
 
Not the only ones who should be banned from having children, or not the only ones who would test a pet theory on child rearing?
 
2:11 AM
the latter
 
The former is also true
 
@AkivaWeinberger That sounds to me like every parent I know, including me and my spouse. It's either try your pet theory or do it with no theory, best I can tell.
 
Seems like a false dichotomy
 
It was on this thread for context
 
@MikeMiller Could be--what's the excluded middle you're seeing but I'm missing?
 
2:19 AM
Using someone else's pet theory that was confirmed to work
 
Just use a pet instead of a pet theory
 
@LeakyNun have the dog raise the kid?
 
right
 
Unfortunately I could not train the dog to be a chess prodigy
 
@Daminark I still think of those at pet theories. My spouse and I are adherents of Bruno Bettelheim's parenting theories/strategies, for instance. But "I'll use this, because I think based on reading a few things and having been parented once and having never parented before that it'll go well" is still, in my book, a pet theory. I.e. my pet theory is "Bettelheim seems like a good idea."
@LeakyNun That... I did not consider. Third way: identified.
=)
 
2:23 AM
"If you're inclined to test pet theories on children, don't have children"
 
But that can be made into its own pet theory! "My pet theory about raising kids is nahhhhh"
@AkivaWeinberger you had one job
 
He's only a 1400 elo or so
 
2:36 AM
Smh
 
Is there a way one can easily check the differentiability of a function? For eg. f(x)=$1+(x-3)^{2/3}$ is not differentiable at x=3. How do I find it out rather simply (graphically maybe but how?) without having to analytically by finding the limits and seeing and it takes a lot of time.
 
in general, $x^p$ is differentiable at $x=0$ when $p\geq 1$
(getting it to x=3 is just a change of variables)
simple way to understand that is to note that $\frac{x^p-0}{x}=x^{p-1}$ which goes to zero as $x\to 0$ if $p> 1$, stays at 1 if $p=1$, and diverges if $0<p<1$
 
Can you provide an example plz?
 
2:52 AM
You already have one.
And I gave you the ingredients to figure out any other that you want, at least as far as exponents go
 
oh I forgot. Thanks for making me realise that ;-)
 
the thing to note is that, when it comes to the basic examples, there's some obvious facts at play
but if you've got something complicated, it's not always going to be easy to see where the function is differentiable regardless
 
@mercio You're right. It needs solving $x^3-3x-18=0$. If rational root theorem isn't allowed etc, then it's a mess. I can't imagine that though. I learned a method of solving this by working sort of backwards from a journal once, but it's basically cheating (it's basically requires knowing the form the answer is gonna be, and it even looks prophetic when read).
 
thank goodness for rational root theorem, really
 
@Semiclassical Very nice! I see what you did there! xD
Never mind, I'm sleep deprived, and finding puns/humour everywhere.
 
2:56 AM
@Semiclassical I did not understand the implication of this statement (the one to which I have replied here)
 
i'm just writing out the difference quotient for $x^p$ at $x=0$
 
What does it really imply?
 
it implies that the limit required for the derivative at $x=0$ to exist only does so when $p\geq 1$
 
Oh! Thanks ... I got it
 
3:09 AM
Is the converse of Rolle's Theorem always true?
 
In mathematics, Vieta's formulas are formulas that relate the coefficients of a polynomial to sums and products of its roots. Named after François Viète (more commonly referred to by the Latinised form of his name, Franciscus Vieta), the formulas are used specifically in algebra. == Basic formulas == Any general polynomial of degree n P ( x ) = a n x n + a n ...
should help
 
3:31 AM
1
Q: Do all rigid bodies of radius $r$ have at least one stable orbit with perihelion $p$ such that $2r >p > r$?

Brian BIn reading about the TESS mission, I was ultimately led to this NASA commentary from 2006, discussing how lumpy Earth's moon is. One of the points made is that there exist only 4 orbital inclinations at which a (close) lunar orbit is stable, and that they all simply avoid mass concentrations. F...

I've voted to close...
But perhaps someone can help explain?
 
@nitsua60 I can't see it. Does it solve the polynomial?
 
Scipione del Ferro (6 February 1465 – 5 November 1526) was an Italian mathematician who first discovered a method to solve the depressed cubic equation. == Life == Scipione del Ferro was born in Bologna, in northern Italy, to Floriano and Filippa Ferro. His father, Floriano, worked in the paper industry, which owed its existence to the invention of the press in the 1450s and which probably allowed Scipione to access various works during early stages of his life. He married and had a daughter, who was named Filippa after his mother. He likely studied at the University of Bologna, where he ...
or this
@user537566 yeah, historically there is a lot known about solving cubics that we don't much teach these days
 
Condsider these two sets: Homomorphisms from the fundamental group of a manifold to the real numbers and the set of homomorphisms from the abelianization of the funamental group of a manifold to the real numbers. Are these sets isomorphic?
The manifold is connected and smooth.
This is bothering me. Im trying to prove the first de rham cohomology group is isomorphic to sets of homs btwn fundamental group of the manifold to real numbers and im stuck on this step....
 
In algebra, a cubic function is a function of the form f ( x ) = a x 3 + b x 2 + c x + d {\displaystyle f(x)=ax^{3}+bx^{2}+cx+d} in which a is nonzero. Setting f(x) = 0 produces a cubic equation of the form a x 3 + b ...
@user537566 that has the Cardano-Tartaglia methd, too
 
@nitsua60 That's very nice. Reading through the wikipedia page on cubic equation is a blast! It seems majority of methods for solving cubic equations have Italian names (Cardano, Tartaglia, del Ferro, Lagrange, etc).
 
3:39 AM
Let $Ab(\pi_1(M)$ denote the abelianization of the fundamental group of $M$. We are given that $Ab(\pi_1(M) \cong H_1(M)$, the first homology group
By the de Rham theorem we know that $H^1_{DR}(M) \cong H^1(M ; \mathbb{R})$, the first singular cohomology group.
 
@user537566 that's 'cause they couldn't/didn't read Arabic =)
(Khayyam,of course, was there before any of the Italians. As usual.)
gotta run. enjoy!
 
And then by the universal coefficent theorem $ H^1(M ; \mathbb{R}) \cong Hom(H_1(M), \mathbb{R})$.
And then we are given that $H_1(M) \cong Ab(\pi_1(M)$
Thus, $H^1_{DR}(M) \cong Hom(Ab(\pi_1(M)) , \mathbb{R})$
 
@NicholasRoberts is this going somewhere
 
Now i need to show that this is in fact isomorpic to the set of homomorphisms between $\pi_1(M)$ to $\mathbb{R}$$
Any ideas?
Ya, i need that abelianization to go away
 
@nitsua60 That's hilarious! Language barrier forced them to discover/rediscover some good maths!
 
3:48 AM
@NicholasRoberts $Hom(G_1,G_2)\cong Hom(Ab(G_1),G_2)$ if $G_2$ is abelian
 
I've just checked that one of my books has a method of solving $\displaystyle \sqrt[n]{a+\varphi(x)}+\sqrt[n]{b-\varphi(x)} = c$ via symmetric polynomials that looks suspiciously like Cardano's method. It says let $\displaystyle u= \sqrt[n]{a+\varphi(x)}$, $ v=\sqrt[n]{b-\varphi(x)}$. Then solves $u+v = c$, $u^3+v^3=a+b$ via symmetric polynomials.
 
Ah, ok. Is this from the unversal property of the abelianization?
I know given any hom from G to H (H abelian) we can get a unique hom from Ab to H
 
Probably, but easy to check directly.
Yes, exactly.
 
Ok, so then every hom from G to H corresponds to a hom in Ab to H. but how do you know every Hom from Ab to H is hit?
Like there could be some members in there that do not correspond
 
So you have $f\in Hom(Ab(G_1),G_2)$...take $[g]\in G_1$ and show that $\tilde f(g)=f([g])$ is a well defined thing and constant on the class of $g$
 
3:51 AM
Im not being clear lol but hopefully you see what i mean
 
and that gives you the hom $G_1\to G_2$
roughly because any extra bits you get get canceled when you use the homomorphism property and then the abelianness of $G_2$
 
Ah I see. and this will show the two sets are in set-theoretic bijection??
 
@NicholasRoberts yeah
 
THanks dude
 
np
 
4:07 AM
@NicholasRoberts abelianization is the left adjoint of the forgetful functor from Ab to Grp
@NicholasRoberts they are in natural isomorphism
 
4:20 AM
@LeakyNun **** ***
 
@0celo7 I have never heard of a group operation denoted in quite that way
 
@Daminark star morphism
 
:O
 
 
1 hour later…
5:40 AM
[Random]
1+1+1+1+... < w
1+1+1+...+1 = x
 
5:51 AM
Interfinite attempt 1:
1+1+1+1+...+1=a
a+1=1+a=a
a+a+a+...+a=b
b+1=1+b=b+a=a+b
n1=a=1n
ma=am=b
$1<_n a <_m b$
(m+1)a=ma+1a=b+a=b
0
1
11
111
1111...
Let (m1,m2,...) be (4,4,4,...)
0,1,11,111,a
 
6:08 AM
@0celo7, Artin says: 'A polynomial with coefficients in a ring $R$ is a finite linear combination of powers of the variable: $f(x)=a_nx^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+\dots+a_1x+a_0$ where coefficients $a_i$ are elements of $R$.' Here, what is $x$, ie what is domain? real? complex?
 
a=a1=a11=...
a,aa,aaa,b
w=lim(1,11,111,...)
a=1111
hmm...
 
@Silent There is no domain, as these are not functions
the $x$ is just a formal variable that helps you keep track of what each coefficient represents and helps you remember how to add and multiply these things
 
@TobiasKildetoft thank you very much
 
7:06 AM
hello, i want to study the convergence of $(v_n=\frac{1}{n})$ in the topology endowed with $\{(a,b], a<b, a,b\in\mathbb{R}\}$, i say let $l\in\mathbb{R}$ , if $l\leq0$ then $l$ is not a limit because $\frac1n\notin(l-\varepsilon,l]$
if $l=1$ there exists $\varepsilon=\frac12$ such that there is only $v_1\in (\frac12,1]$ so $1$ is not a limit
how to do the case $0<l<1$ and $l>1$
@AlessandroCodenotti hello, have you an idea please ?
 
@Vrouvrou Why did you take the interval $(l-\epsilon,l]$ rather than $(l-\epsilon,l+\epsilon]$?
Actually, why did you take an epsilon at all?
 
because $(l-\varepsilon,l]$ is open in this topology and it is small then $(l-\epsilon,l+\epsilon]$
 
ok, and why the epsilon at all?
 
to work with a small neighborhood
i can say $(a,l]$ a<l
nothing change with a instead of $l-\varepsilone$
 
What special property of $l=1$ did you use? Why can you not do all the $l > 0$ cases like that?
 
7:22 AM
i tryed but i don't find how to explain that why we can't find $n_0$ such that $\forall n\geq n_0, $\frac1n\in (a,l]$
 
Hi all it's my first time in the chat and I was wondering if I could ask a question in here instead
 
@Vrouvrou Just pick any $a$ such that $0 < a < l$
then from some point onwards, the sequence will be smaller than $a$
@AlexD Ask away
 
@TobiasKildetoft i don't understand
 
@Vrouvrou You are trying to pick an open set which contains $l$ and which does not contain the tail of the sequence, right?
 
yes
 
7:27 AM
So given $l > 0$ pick $a$ as I said and take $(a,l]$
 
I was working on a problem from my intro to analysis class. I need to find the limit of $x^x$ as $x$ approaches 0. From calculus I know its 1 using l'hopital's rule, but we havent covered that in this course. The hint is that I choose a sequence converging to zero such that the limit of the sequence $(f(x))$ is easy to determine
 
the argument is basically the same as for why this sequence does not converge to something larger than $0$ is the usual topology
 
My teacher couldn't give us any further hints as we tried solving it in class
 
@AlexD can we write $x^x$ as exp ?
@TobiasKildetoft i will try to write this , but i need something exact
 
@Vrouvrou That was exact
 
7:33 AM
@Vrouvrou You mean as an exponential sequence?
 
@AlexD What do you get if you take log twice?
Actually never mind, that probably requires you to already know that taking log once makes it go to $0$, rather than to something negative
and that is basically the issue anyway
 
I am kinda stuck in a question.The question is: five balls are to be placed in 3 boxes
 
@TobiasKildetoft how i prove that for any $0<a<l$ card\{n\in\mathbb{N}^*, \frac1n\in(a,l]\}<+\infty$
 
Each can hold all the five balls.In how many ways can we place the balls so that no balls remain empty if balls and boxes are different
 
@Vrouvrou By noting that there is some $m$ such that $1/m < a$.
 
7:39 AM
ohhh Archimed?
 
there exist 1! how to prove that there is an ifinity ?
 
@Vrouvrou Because the sequence is decreasing
 
@Abhinav "Balls and boxes are different" That means the balls are distinguishable, and the boxes are distinguishable?
 
yes
 
7:43 AM
So, eg, if the balls are numbered and the boxes are denoted by carets, 1|2|345 and 2|1|345 are different arrangements
 
I think so
I proceeded to do by diving them into groups of{3,2,1}and {2,2,1}
But I didn't get my answer after calculating this
150
 
Sorry, uh, that was a wrong count. Hm.
 
Each can hold all five balls....I forgot to add "all"
 
Wait, but you said boxes can't be left empty!
If no box is left empty, I want to start by placing three balls in three boxes. There are 3! ways to do it. Then place the rest two in, which you can do in 3x3=9 ways. The answer should be 9*6 = 54, in that case.
 
@BalarkaSen You also need to choose which balls to place from the start
 
7:49 AM
Crap you're right.
 
@TobiasKildetoft Archimed say that $\forall \alpha,x\in\mathbb{R}_+,\exists m\in \mathbb{N}, 0\leq \alpha\leq n x$ i applied it for $\alpha=1$ and $x=a$ then i must appy it for what ? to get the infinity ?
 
But some final configurations may be identical despite having different starting configurations
 
Yeah.
 
@Vrouvrou Did you see what I wrote about the sequence being decreasing?
 
@BalarkaSen I think they said that for confusion
 
7:50 AM
@TobiasKildetoft Eg, 1|2|3 and put 4 and 5 in the first and 4|2|3 and then 1 and 5 in the first
 
@TobiasKildetoft yes how we use that it is decreasing ?
 
That's annoying.
 
@Vrouvrou What you are trying to show follows directly from that, since then all natural numbers larger than the $m$ you found will also work
 
@TobiasKildetoft what about the $m$ that i found ican be large!
 
so what?
 
7:54 AM
i can't see why there is an ifinity $\frac1n$ from the fact that there exist $m$ such that $0<\frac1m\leq a$
 
Can anybody point out what am I missing
 
@Vrouvrou I think you need to take a step back and revisit the proof that this sequence converges to $0$ and not to anything else in the usual topology. Because the things that are causing confusion are really things that ought to feel natural before you start considering other topologies.
 
@Abhinav Ok, I think inclusion-exclusion does the trick. There are 3^5 ways to put the balls in the boxes, but we have to subtract the number of arrangements which leaves one box empty. That's possible in 3*2^5 ways (select a box which would be empty, and you put the other crap in the rest of the two boxes), but you're overcounting: subtract the number of arrangement which leaves two boxes empty. That's 3C2*1^5.
So it's 3^5 - 3 * 2^5 + 3C2 * 1^5, which seems to be 150
 
@BalarkaSen Right, we are counting surjective maps from a set with 5 elements to one with 3 elements
 
I suppose, yeah
 
8:01 AM
and counting surjective maps is always a pain
 
Yeah
 
@BalarkaSen oKAY
@BalarkaSen Also can you tell me the difference between (3^5)and (5^3)here
 
The balls go the boxes. There are 3 ways a ball can go in a box, and there are 5 balls, so 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 = 3^5 ways to do this. You can't use the same argument for boxes, because a box can "take in" multiple balls.
Each ball goes to a unique box, but the converse (each box contains a unique ball) is false.
So the 5^3 thing doesn't work.
 
 
1 hour later…
9:31 AM
hello
@TobiasKildetoft thank you for your help
I have $w_n=\sin(n\pi/4)\sin(n\pi/2)$ i want to find the adherent value of $w_n$
$w_0=w_2=w_4=...=w_{2k}=0$
so 0 is an adherent value
but
$w_1=w_7=w_9=\sqrt{2}/2$
$w_3=w_5=w_{11}=w_{13}=-\sqrt{2}/2$
how i can summerise this ?
 
What is an adherent value?
 
the limit of subsequences
we are in the usual topology
 
So the set of values of the sequence is finite and hence the only convergent subsequences are those whose value becomes constant from some point.
So the adherent values are precisely those values that the sequence takes infinitely many times (and it takes all of its values infinitely many times)
 
yes
 
So you now have all of the adherent values of the sequence.
 
9:46 AM
$l$ is an adherent value iff $\forall V\in \mathcal{V}_l, card\{n\in\mathbb{N}, x_n\in V\}$
@TobiasKildetoft i want to write the subsequences as $w_{2k}$
i want to find all the subsequences that takes $\sqrt{2}/2$
until now i found $w_1=w_7=w_9=w_{15}=w_{17}$
 
Why do you want to find all of them?
 
to be sure that there is no other value
 
that makes no sense to me
 
what is the subsequence which converge to $0$ it is $w_{2k}$
 
that is one of them, yes
 
9:58 AM
then what is the subsequence which converge to $\sqrt{2}/2$
and the subsequence which converge to $-\sqrt{2}{2}$
that's what i want to find
 
there is no "the".
The value of the sequence only depends on what $n$ is mod $8$, right?
 
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