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12:42 AM
According to en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-adic_order, $\nu_p(a+b) \geq \inf\{\nu_p(a), \nu_p(b)\}$, with equality if $\nu_p(a) \neq \nu_p(b)$. Are any other properties of $\nu_p(a+b)$ known (perhaps an upper bound?), in terms of the prime valuations of $a$ and $b$?
Not necessarily restricted to $\nu_p(a)$ and $\nu_p(b)$.
 
@user76284 well, if $a=-b$, then $a+b = 0$, and so $v_p(a+b) = \infty$
so I am not sure what you are hoping for...
 
Yes, but what about a more general case?
 
Again, I don't know what you are hoping for...
For any fixed $a$ and any $N > 0$, we can find some $b$ such that $v_p(a+b) > N$
 
Right, but is there any more information we can get about $v_p(a+b)$ in terms of the prime factors of $a$ and $b$?
 
the only prime factor that matters is $p$
 
12:57 AM
We know for instance that $v_p(a + b) \geq v_p(a)$.
 
yes... and?
 
We also know $v_p(a+b) = \inf\{v_p(a),v_p(b)\}$ exactly, when $v_p(a) \neq v_p(b)$.
 
yes... and?
you can write out the $p$-adic expansions of both $a$ and $b$
 
What do you mean "and"? I'm asking if there is anything in the literature that says more about $v_p(a+b)$.
 
the valuation of $a+b$ will be related to the place where the expansions first differ
I don't understand what it is that you want to know...
there is a huge literature about $p$-adic numbers
 
1:00 AM
I want to know if we can say anything more about $v_p(a+b)$ than simply it being bounded below by $v_p(a)$ and $v_p(b)$.
 
read Koblitz, or Gouvea, or Roberts, or Artin and Tate
 
Do you have a particular reference in mind?
 
the best that you can say, in general, is that $v_p(a+b) \ge \max\{ v_p(a), v_p(b)\}$.
that is the general case
 
Of course, in terms of $v_p(a)$ and $v_p(b)$ alone.
Sorry, I should be more clear.
 
p-adic :D
 
1:01 AM
What I meant is, what if you know also, say $v_q(a)$ and $v_r(b)$?
 
likely nothing
 
For some (or all) primes $q$ and $r$. So not just their $p$-adic valuations.
 
then you can uniquely pinpoint that integer, I think
 
if you know $v_p(a)$ for all primes $p$, then you know exactly what $a$ is
 
sniped :P
 
1:03 AM
but knowing $v_p(a)$ for some $p$ doesn't tell you much about $v_r(a)$ for other primes $r$
 
and then you step into the region of profinite integers
 
mmm... profinite integers
 
which is, in some sense, a generalization of p-adic integers
 
there are also all of the local-to-global results
those are interesting
 
Yes, of course. In that case you literally do the addition and factorize it. What I mean is, what if you only know a subset of the prime exponents, or some other property about the prime factorization? Is there some relationship that does not rely on full knowledge of the prime factorization?
I think the appropriate area would be primes in additive number theory.
For instance, $v_2(3^n - 1) = v_2(n)+2$.
But that's just a very specific case. Are there more general results like it?
 
1:05 AM
hmm
but bear in mind, $3^n-1$ and $3^n$ are very far (even under the $3$-adic metric)
 
Yes, of course. Actually, I was also thinking about whether anything could be said about the sum in terms of the arithmetic metric.
Something tighter than the triangle inequality.
I guess I'm looking for general relationships between prime factorizations of two numbers $a$ and $b$ and the prime factorization of their sum $a+b$.
$a$ and $b$ don't have to be positive integers, they could also be positive rationals in which case some of the prime exponents are negative.
 
The abc conjecture (also known as the Oesterlé–Masser conjecture) is a conjecture in number theory, first proposed by Joseph Oesterlé (1988) and David Masser (1985). It is stated in terms of three positive integers, a, b and c (hence the name) that are relatively prime and satisfy a + b = c. If d denotes the product of the distinct prime factors of abc, the conjecture essentially states that d is usually not much smaller than c. In other words: if a and b are composed from large powers of primes, then c is usually not divisible by large powers of primes. The precise statement is given below. The...
related?
 
I was just looking for a similar link :(
I should have just accepted that Wikipedia is the source of all knowledge :P
 
sniped :P
 
yarp
but I'm okay with that
right... time to go put the child to bed
 
1:10 AM
I suppose a full understanding of this problem would entail solving the Collatz conjecture, twin prime conjecture, and other such conjectures. I have to look for partial results.
By the way, is there any significance to the inner product between two numbers, treating their prime exponent sequences as elements of a module? Do you know if anyone has studied this?
The $L_1$ norm corresponds to the group-theoretic word norm if you treat primes as a generating set.
 
Dude... you're getting algebra into my analysis. :(
$\ddot\frown$
 
Yeah let's do fractals
So let's say you have a fractal. And let's consider irreducible representations of its homeomorphism group... Wait fuck I got algebra mixed in again
 
1:25 AM
hey @Daminark
can I ask a quick question ?
 
Sir
*Sure
 
@Daminark I don't even know what a fractal is, dude...
 
It's a set whose complement is a cofractal
 
Isn't a fractal just an object with an associated zeta function that has non-real poles
that's obvious, isn't it?
 
1:34 AM
heh
 
I am just replacing some professor to give class on non-abstract differential geometry.
so in ted's videos he defined non-abstract manifolds of dimension k as represented locally as graph of $C^{1}$ functions $\phi : U \rightarrow R^{n - k}$ for U open set in one of the standard coordinates k-planes.
why here we map to $R^{n - k}$ instead of just $R^{n}$ ?
@Daminark
hi @MatheinBoulomenos btw
 
Hi @Adeek
 
@Adeek it'll be best to reason through examples here
 
I think the reason we did in this way in order to be able to define things as like the manifolds of zero set of differentiable function
I think that is probably the reason in order to get meaningful dimension for that probably
 
The best example being, something which is globally the graph of a function
 
1:42 AM
sure
 
hi, i need some help on an integral. I have e^(1/3*x^3) and i tried u subsitution of 1/3x^3 but this gives an integral with both a u and an x in it: e^u/x^2 du so am wondering what other approach i should try
 
Also the level set business is something to keep in mind, think about how the sphere is a level set of a function from R^n to R, and how its dimension is n-1.
 
oh
okay so probably the reason is because of the level set business
 
Well you'll be able to derive the equivalence out of the implicit function theorem
 
ohh I see
I see so it probably comes out of the implicit function theorem
 
1:47 AM
But it's also a good exercise to say okay, let $f:\mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^m$ be a smooth function
What is the dimension if its graph as a submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^{n+m}$? Using any definition?
 
wait no
it should be n
n is the amount of degrees of freedom
 
Good, so now substituting what you want, you're good
 
yeah I see that is good
thanks for the discussion
 
No problem!
Also hey @Mathein!
 
hey @Daminark
 
1:55 AM
Btw @MatheinBoulomenos now I bought all the books that I am gonna use for next 2 years
I am gonna stop buying anything anymore :d
 
ha, I'm buying too much math books, too
 
Springer Sale was truly the best business decision
 
I bought Algebraic Geometry and Arithmetic Curves, Several Complex Variables with Connections to Algebraic Geometry and Lie Groups ,Algebraic Number Theory,and Serg lang complex analysis.
those Plus the ones that I have should keep me busy for few years
@MatheinBoulomenos it is an infection haha
@MatheinBoulomenos This book seems very interesting "Several Complex Variables with Connections to Algebraic Geometry and Lie Groups"
 
sounds good from the title, yeah
 
Hopefully they're not lying about what they cover
 
2:01 AM
yeah I sure hope not
it has 5 stars
 
Oh it was a shitty joke about the title
"Lie" groups
 
that's not pronounced like that
 
True but imposing these kinds of conditions only limits what you can do
 
2:27 AM
shit, springer sale rn?
 
Surely a collection of people formed a "lie" group at some point in the past, for some reason or other.
 
this is a sophus ing dumb joke
 
The Sophists in Ancient Greece!
 
Hi/bye @Karl Kronenberg
 
Hey yo @Balarka
 
2:37 AM
Just curious, is there any method of FSM (with initial and terminal states) reduction which guarantees that originally accepting inputs will still accept, while disregarding originally rejecting inputs?
 
@KarlKronenfeld How's life
 
@BalarkaSen things are going fine. How are you?
 
Good to know. I'm not terrible, but a bit pressed with exams
 
Naturally. Hopefully they are going well nevertheless.
 
They haven't started yet but yeah I'm working on it. Thanks.
 
3:20 AM
@BalarkaSen someone suggested I write a list/summary of all proofs of the Hodge theorem
seems a bit unproductive but would definitely be cool
 
I would read it
 
I'm at like 6
one semi-original in the sense that I haven't seen it written or hinted anywhere
but not unexpected if you know this stuff
 
4:17 AM
Hey
I have a number theory (probably) question
 
@MadhuchhandaMandal just ask!
 
Let {x} denote the fractional part of x. Now , I'm trying to develop an algorithm which finds integers n (in increasing order) such that {nπ} goes on decreasing. Here's an sample output of what I'm trying to achieve :
 
hmm, no idea, sorry
 
Ideally one would start by finding a continued fraction expansion of \pi
 
At present what Im doing is simply iterating through all integers and checking is if {nπ} is lesser than the least output printed
But my question is,
Is it possible Mathematically to predict for what integer n the fraction part of the product may be less than a particular value ?
 
4:35 AM
It's not hard to prove that there is such a sequence $n_k$ of integers such that $\{n_k \pi\}$ is decreasing, because all the real numbers of the form $\{n \pi\}$ for some integer $n$ are equidistributed in [0, 1]
Coming up with one would require to study a continued fraction of $\pi$, like I said
This looks like a good place to start
 
@BalarkaSen Thanks a lot. I will Google Continued fraction
Is continued fraction of every decimal number possible ?
 
For sure, just do a Euclidean algorithm.
 
Okay. Looks interesting. Lemme Google
Thanks
 
The one I wrote is not quite a continued fraction but a generalized continued fraction because the numerators aren't all 1's
 
I see
@BalarkaSen Equidistributed means?
 
4:46 AM
Ah right so that means for any subinterval $[a, b] \subset [0, 1]$, the density of the sequence $\{n\pi\}_{n = 0}^\infty$ is $b - a$, length of the interval $[a, b]$.
So in particular for any subinterval of $[0, 1]$ there are lots (hence at least one) of real number of the form $\{n\pi\}$ for some $n$.
In particular for every $\epsilon > 0$, there is a $n_\epsilon$ such that $\{n_\epsilon \pi\} \in [\epsilon/2, \epsilon]$.
Picking a sequence of $\epsilon$'s tending to $0$, this gives a sequence of $n_\epsilon$'s such that $\{n_\epsilon \pi\}$ is monotonically decreasing to $0$.
It's easier to prove density than equidistribution, I just used the strongest theorem available. Look up "equidistribution modulo 1" for more on this.
In general there is nothing special about $\pi$, it holds for any irrational number.
I don't know how to construct such a sequence of $n$'s, though. This just proves existence.
 
@BalarkaSen Okay okay.. I seem to get it now. Isn't it like uniform distribution of mass of a rod along its length and then claiming between points [a,b] mass is (b-a)* M/(L) ?
Where mass denotes number of points ?
 
Yes, exactly.
It means the sequence $\{n\pi\}_{n = 0}^\infty$ is uniformly distributed in $[0, 1]$, that's the correct intuition.
 
Yes .. so it proves the existence of such a sequence
 
Quite right.
 
I'm thinking how to develop an algorithm...đŸ¤”đŸ¤”
To extract the n's
 
4:57 AM
This I do not know. Interesting question, though.
 
Yeah. Ofcourse. It's very interesting.
 
Yo everyone
 
Mystical greetings
 
If we take out the part in the definition of a group that requires inverses to commute, do we still get a group?
I'm trying to find a counterexample, but can't think of one right now
 
Wait do you mean you only assume one-sided inverse?
For any $a$ there's some $b$ such that $ab = e$ and a priori not necessarily $ba = e$? If so then yeah that's enough for a group. Even one-sided identity I think
 
5:11 AM
@Daminark Yeah that's what I meant
 
Think about aba
 
Scratch that. You have to think about a c such that bc = e.
c = (ab)c = a(bc) = a
Notice that you need left identity = right identity in the proof.
 
Thanks Balarka!
So one-sided identity isn't enough for groups, correct?
But one-sided inverses will do just fine
 
I think it's enough but I can't be arsed to write down a proof that one-sided identity implies two-sided identity and both of them are the same
3algebra5me
If you think a little you should be able to write it down
@Alex Ugh fucken 70's pop
The worst
 
5:26 AM
lol
 
I only listen to real music
 
@BalarkaSen You said to think about abba
The only song I know from abba
 
So let's say $e$ is a left-sided identity and that you have left-sided inverses. $ee = e$, so $a^{-1}ae = a^{-1} a$, so $(a^{-1})^{-1} a^{-1} a e = (a^{-1})^{-1} a^{-1} a$. Then the left hand side, by associativity and left inverse is gonna be $ae$, and the right side is $a$, so $e$ is a right-sided inverse
 
i know a few abba songs off the top of my head for better or worse
Waterloo, SOS, Knowing Me Knowing You, Super Trooper
plus i'll take 70's pop over contemporary pop any day
 
5:30 AM
Now we have a two-sided identity (which we know is unique lest that be a problem) so let's prove we have two-sided inverse.
 
I'll take suicidal depressive black metal over 70's pop any day
 
(Also double check me for errors, I did this argument a while back because on my first algebra pset we got docked a quarter of the points because we usually just established one-sided inverses (one of the problems was fucking commutative anyway) but this was a while back)
 
3edgy5you
 
5:31 AM
:')
 
its all relative
 
Noise metal?
 
Just noise. Raw noise.
skibi pop pop
 
5:33 AM
$a^{-1} a = e$, so $a^{-1} a a^{-1} = e a^{-1} = a^{-1}$, so $(a^{-1})^{-1} a^{-1} a a^{-1} = (a^{-1})^{-1} a^{-1} = e$, while the left hand side simplifies to $aa^{-1}$, so that's a right-sided inverse.
 
It's recommending me Macintosh plus three times in the recommended list
 
@Perturbative this should do it unless I'm drunk on the flu
 
I wonder why
 
hahahah
get v a p o r w a v e d
@Semiclassical You know what I like about 70's pop
 
I haven't actually listened to the whole album, I'ma hit that now
 
5:33 AM
They can be slowed down and turned into masterpieces
 
good ^
 
ï¼©ă€€ï¼£ï¼¡ï¼®ă€€ï¼­ï¼¡ï¼«ï¼¥ă€€ï¼©ï¼´ă€€ï¼¢ï¼¥ï¼´ï¼´ï¼¥ï¼²ă€€ï¼¦ï¼¯ï¼²ă€€ï¼¹ï¼¯ï¼µ
Like I said, I only listen to real /mu/sic
 
@Daminark Don't you mean $e$ is a right-sided identity? (In the post before Semi said the abba songs he knows)
 
@Alex I actually don't dislike Macintosh Plus
It's kinda dope, in a sense
D O P E
 
@BalarkaSen I only like the canonical song from their album
From what I've heard
 
5:40 AM
Oh maybe I flubbed that, I'm tired
Trust yourself more than you trust me at the moment
 
@Alex Have you tried Tom and Jerry wave?
 
Actually yes hahaha
I think you showed me ages ago
 
I love the comments below
 
@Daminark Just went through it, it looks good to me
 
@Daminark Sorry to hear about the flu
Hope a speedy recovery
 
5:48 AM
Thanks
 
Hope you have a quick recovery Dami!
 
<S_h|P>
I need to figure out what this means...
It looks nothing like a wavefunction
1 hour ago, by Madhuchhanda Mandal
Is continued fraction of every decimal number possible ?
Hmm... is Chaitins's constant a decimal given how we cannot even compute its digits...?
 
Yes it is, like any real number. The digits just cannot be computable by a Turing machine.
 
interesting
 
6:40 AM
This notion of transcending the normal bounds of something is very common in our society. For example, how a person's idea, if it is considered as good/bad/whatever enough, it get sucked into the education system, and then will start to influence the younger generation

Thus, in a minimalistic sense, education is a bridge between individuals to the society in terms of influences. It converts a local influence into a potentially global one
We tried to capture this minimalistic notion by coming up with the concept of interfinite, something that bridges the finite (individual) to the infinite (society at large in the perspective of individuals)
note how annoying it is that this concept is not even logically consistent with first order logic
Mar 4 at 7:29, by Secret
Proposition: Let $A$ be a Non-Archimedean semiring with a linear order. Then interfinite elements does not exist
another lesson of this and similar blog posts, is that don't think that every public blog post you wrote has no consequence to the society. When any of these high level entities such as the education system start putting them into their plans, it can have a global impact. The internet makes this transition even easier as internet memes spread very far and quickly like wildfire, and all that is need is enough people to share about it
Perhaps, a more accurate way to formalise this idea is before the internet, society is really infinite in the perspective of individuals, but ever since the internet, society becomes finite. That, is much easier to model and is also consistent
 
7:03 AM
0
Q: Two Touching Ellipses - Tangents, Centres and Collinearity

schrodinger_16 Consider two ellipses, touching each other at a point (i.e. they've a common tangent at that point). It is given that they also have two more external common tangents, which when extended meet at P. The centres of the ellipses are A and B. Prove that A, B, P are collinear. I've attache...

In this question
If we want to use the affine transformation
Can we change both ellipses to circles?
or just one?
And why so?
 
From the way the ellipses are oriented, it seems they semimajor axes (resp major axes) are orthogonal to each other, that means, any sheering that sheer the ellipses along one of these axes will make the other more elliptical as one becomes circular, and it does not seemed sheering in the diagonal direction will work either, as the resulting ellipses will be slanted
I don't recall what other kinds of affine transformation that are not sheering nor translation (which does not do anything) are, I need to check
ok checked, so there is no affine transformation that can make both ellipses circular, and the best you can do is make one of the circular
(I don't know how to prove this algebraically however...)
 
7:43 AM
Are "where am I going wrong in my calculation" questions on topic on Math.SE? Can I ask them in chat?
Alternatively, does anyone have a nice and simple explanation of using Markov Chains to calculate the probability of reaching each terminating state for cross-dependent probabilities (as in P(A) = f(P(B)), P(B) = f(P(C)), P(C) = f(P(A))) somewhere? The explanations I've seen so far are either a bit math-heavy or goes off on some long tangent about things I don't care about.
The whole "ignore all previous states and only consider the most recent one" worked* for one calculation, but then it failed for another one.
 
8:08 AM
@Secret, Yeah, alright. I understood that now.
That done, the proof using analytic geometry is still not easy
It may be straightforward, but is lengthy
Have you tried it?
Could you post it if you have?
A method using only geometry works fine too
 
8:48 AM
Never mind, I figured it out (to some extent). Random fact: with a probability p of winning a point in tennis, the probability of winning the game from deuce is: p^2/(p^2 + (1-p)^2)
 
9:06 AM
ugh, this is not going anywhere...
I don't know the relationship between the angles of an ellipse and its tangent
 
9:21 AM
Hey
does it hold that each 2x2 symmetric matrix with positive diagonal elements is positive defined?
Hi @LeakyNun
Do you maybe have ann idea?
 
take e.g. diag (0,1,0), then it is easy to see that if the vector is e.g. 1,0,0, you get zero for its quadratic form
 
But in our case we have a 2x2 matrix :/
So which matrix could we pick?
 
oops I forgot to read the 2x2 bit, hmm... my first intuition is the determinant will be important, but let me check closely just in case. Luckily you have a symmetric matrix here, thus the maths is a bit easier to handle
Ok, turns out the rules are quite simple: You pick any 2x2 symmetric matrices with eigenvalues all positive, that is enough to guarentee positive definiteness
 
Hello!

Does someone of you have an idea about my question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2694783/convergence-of-iteration-method-criterion-using-iteration-matrix ?
Do we check the converegence of an iteration method only the spectral radius? Or also the infinity norm of the iteration matrix?
 
A ok, thank you :) @Secret
 
9:45 AM
Anyone here good at combinatorics?
 
if $f$ is a homeomorphism between $(X,\sigma) \to (Y,\delta)$, is it true that if $U \in$ $\sigma$, then $f(U) \in \sigma$. I know the definition of a homeomorphic function, i have tried manipulating its properties, but could not conclude if its true or not.
 
9:59 AM
@Shobhit The inverse function of $f$ is continuous thus $f^{-1}(f(U)) \in \sigma \implies f(U)\in \delta$. And $f^{-1}(f(U)) = U$ because $f$ is bijective (unless I'm missing something obvious).
 
@Shobhit What's your definition of a homeomorphism?
 
@Astyx i may be interpreting your answer wrong, but could you please read the question again, its " is it true that if $U \in$ $\sigma$, then $f(U) \in \sigma$" (note they both belong in $sigma$).
 
Are you sure it's not $f(U)\in\delta$? Because $\sigma$ has nothing to do with the codomain of $f$
 
@AlessandroCodenotti $f$ is bijective with $f$ and its inverse continous.
@AlessandroCodenotti i am not sure, thats why i asked, i have read wiki and searched MSE for this, all to find what i already know, i read this from a friends notebook, he could very well may have written wrong, i skipped class that day. So wanted to confirm if its true or he copied wrong the from the blackboard
 
I think that should be $\delta$, it seems to be part of a standard exercise, namely showing that $f$ is an homeomorphism iff it is continuous, bijective and open
 
10:10 AM
ok, ty for your help
 
Sorry I was away
What Alessandro said
You can't say anything about the image of $f$ and $\sigma$ (and more importantly it doesn't make any sense if $X \ne Y$)
 
oh ok
 
10:41 AM
@Secret And something else... if there is an upper triagonal matrix R with positive diagonal elements such that $A=R^T R$ does it imply that A is positive definite?
 
but positive diagonals does not imply positive eigenvalues, right?
 
@Evinda $$\begin{bmatrix}1&1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1&-2\\-2&1\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}1\\1\end{bmatrix} = -2$$
@Evinda Let $A=R^TR$. Then, $\langle x, Ax \rangle = \langle Rx, Rx \rangle = \|Rx\|^2 \ge 0$, so it is positive semidefinite
But $R$ is non-singular, so $Rx = 0 \to x = 0$, so $A$ is positive definite
 
huh, never thought about using inner product properties...
 
inner product and positiveness are very tightly linked
 
well, I could have phrased it as easily as $x^TAx = x^T R^T R x = \|Rx\|^2$
 
10:48 AM
@LeakyNun $\begin{bmatrix}1&-2\\-2&1\end{bmatrix} $ cannot be written in the form $R^TR$... or am I wrong?
 
@Evinda I was replying to an earlier message
 
yeah, guess I have gone rusty 3 years after my 2nd year linear algebra class (which I actually did in my 3rd year)
also, that matrix has a negative eigenvalue, thus it is not positive definite and hence Leaky have gave the relevant counterexample
 
@LeakyNun Ah yes, I see...
 
It holds for the spectral radius of a matrix A that $\rho (A)=\max_i \{|\lambda_i|\}$ and $\rho (A)\leq \|A\|$, right? Does this hold for each norm? Also $\rho (A)\leq \|A\|_1$, i.e. does it hold that if $\|A\|_{1}=0.01$ then there is an eigenvalue such that $|\lambda|\leq 0.01$ ?
 
So $A$ is positive definite since $\langle x, Ax \rangle \geq 0$ and $\langle x, Ax \rangle =0 \iff x=0$, right? @LeakyNun
 
10:59 AM
yes
 
@LeakyNun Nice, thank you :)
 
Hello @LeakyNun !! Do you have an idea about my question above?
 
no
 
the only thing I have in mind is it seems to involve spectral theorem of linear operators, which seemed to be functional analysis stuff thus I don't think Leaky nor I nor Evinda will have idea
For example, despite I heard that term all the time, I still have no idea what a spectral radius is
 
biggest absolute value of an eigenvalue
It arises naturally in numerical analysis as well
 
11:04 AM
but is it less or equal to any norm of the matrix?@AlessandroCodenotti
 
It's true for matrix norms induced by vector norms, I don't think it holds in general
 
So, does it hold for 1-norm of the matrix? @AlessandroCodenotti
i.e., $\rho (A)\leq \|A\|_1$
 
Yes, the $||\cdot||_1$ norm is induced by a vector norm
 
Ah ok! So, if $\|A\|_{1}=0.01$ then there is an eigenvalue such that $|\lambda|\leq 0.01$, right? @AlessandroCodenotti
 
Not just one, all of them
 
11:09 AM
Ah yes, since the max of the eigenvaulues is less than 0.01, then all of them are.
Thank you!
 
what is the 1-norm?
 
|x|+|y|+|z|+...|
 
It is defined as the max of the sums of the absolute values of the columns: $\max_j \sum_i |a_{ij}|$
 
Which is also the operator norm if you think about $A$ as an operator $\Bbb C^n\to\Bbb C^m$ and use the $||\cdot||_1$ norm to turn those into normed vector spaces
 
12:10 PM
Since $span(\emptyset)={0}$, could I say "$0$ is a linear combination of nothing"?
The context is linear algebra.
 
12:45 PM
19
Q: Why $\mathbf{0}$ vector has dimension zero?

Q. ZhouAccording to C.H. Edwards' Advanced Calculus of Several Variables: The dimension of the subspace $V$ is defined to be the minimal number of vectors required to generate $V$ (pp. 4). Then why does the $\mathbf{0}$ vector have dimension zero instead of one? Shouldn't it be true that only the empty...

that's actually quite tricky, more accurately, the only linear independent set in the zero vector space is the empty set
 
12:59 PM
@Secret That's what the second paragraph of the accepted answer says
oh... you were responding to Niing... nevermind
 
yeah I know it gets confusing, but I don't want to ping unless necessary
 
1:15 PM
Clearly who asked that question don't even know what is a vector space.
But I'm reading it.
I give myself an answer, if you're interested.
 
1:32 PM
guys, can a Stone space have an open subset that is not closed?
hm, I think I've shown that it's not possible
 
1:51 PM
(never mind, I did not:d)
 
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