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12:00 AM
@TedShifrin What is equivalent to what you are talking about?
 
@user330477: I'm waiting for you to tell me why a matrix of rank $>k$ cannot be in the closure of $M_k$.
Ugh, the site is still acting up.
 
@LeakyNun I have an example
 
@MatheinBoulomenos :D
 
heya @Mathein
 
hey @Ted
still writing on the details though
 
12:03 AM
> Genetic algorithm designed to find low-energy configurations of carbon exploits edge case in the physics model and superimposes all the carbon atoms
@Semiclassical this is funny
 
@TedShifrin In that case, there would exist a $l$ by $l$ minor which is zero. Then what do we do?
 
I don't follow ... what is $l$ here?
 
@TedShifrin I am just using the theorem you talked about earlier. Here, $\max{n,m}\leq l>k$
 
Aren't we working with square matrices to start with?
Or maybe not. I have no idea.
All I care about is one particular matrix of rank $>k$. Why is it not in the closure of $M_k$?
So, yes, use what we talked about. If it has rank $l>k$, then ...
 
@TedShifrin Do we have to use some density argument here as well?
 
12:09 AM
Huh?
The point is: how did you show the matrices $M_k$ formed a Zariski-closed subset?
 
@TedShifrin I think you mean closure of $M_{k} \setminus M_{k-1}=M_k$ earlier. For your question, right now, we do something like this math.stackexchange.com/questions/43192/…
 
$M_k$ is matrices of rank $\le k$, right? So I meant what I said.
 
@LeakyNun Let $F$ be any non-archimedean local field with absolute value $| . |$, let $\mu$ be a Haar measure on $F$ normalized such that $\mathcal{O}_F$, the valuation ring, has measure $1$, then consider the two-dimensional mirabolic group $G:=\left\{\begin{pmatrix} x & y \\0 & 1\end{pmatrix}, x \in F^\times, y \in F \right\}$, we can regard a function $f:G \to \Bbb{R}$ as a function in two variables on $F^\times \times F$, now we can define a left Haar integral (which gives a Haar measure by Riesz) by $f \mapsto \int \frac{f(x,y)}{|x|^2} \mathrm{d}\mu(x) \mathrm{d}\mu(y)$
 
OMG @Mathein.
non-archimedean local field faints
 
it was just a natural example for me :P
 
12:16 AM
So can you describe what you linked in your own words, @user330477? That's what I've been trying to get you to say for an hour.
@Mathein: In general, something like the Heisenberg group seems reasonable to look at.
 
Haar measures here are really easy to compute here: they turn into sums
because our function is locally constant
 
In general, turning left into right or vice versa requires looking at the adjoint representation, I guess, @Mathein.
 
@TedShifrin The only problem, i have is how do I show that $MA^{mn}$ is Hausdorff?
 
The Zariski topology is never Hausdorff.
I have no idea where this is coming from.
 
@TedShifrin I am highly confused.
 
12:21 AM
@LeakyNun the function should actually be the square root of what I wrote, I forgot the "square" part about square-integrable
 
@user330477. Me too. Your original question was very straightforward, and Zev's answer you linked shows you how to do it. So I don't understand ...
@Mathein: Are you using $f$ for different functions? I'm confuzled.
 
no, I tried a characteristic function first but it didn't work
 
Oh, so your "we can just consider the characteristic function $f$, then consider ..." is a typo.
 
OK. Serves me right for looking :D
 
12:24 AM
thanks
 
But how're you seeing left versus right there?
Oh, I see, different formulas for the Haar integral.
 
I would do that in the smooth category with Maurer-Cartan forms.
 
heya @Eric
 
12:27 AM
the idea is that in the formula $\begin{pmatrix} x & y \\0 & 1\end{pmatrix} \cdot \begin{pmatrix} x' & y' \\0 & 1\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix} xx' & xy'+y \\0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$ you can ignore the $+y$ if you're integrating over the whole space, so you get the left action scales both entries and the right action scales only one entry
 
You get more telegraphic every week, @Eric.
 
hi @ÉricoMeloSilva
 
what do u mean
 
fewer letters in your words
 
12:27 AM
LOL
It's like you're paying a premium for each letter.
 
yup
i didnt write down anything for the $\partial \bar{\partial}$ lemma thing and now i dont see at all why you need d exactness
 
Oh, so, as Demonark would say, RIP that exercise?
 
ya i also cant find where it is in GH cuz it's not in the index lol
ik it's in voisin i think
 
Oh, I thought I gave the page number.
 
nah at least if u did i mightve already been gonezo
 
12:33 AM
I have been summoned
 
Oh, maybe I said the page number in my notes.
 
oh maybe, ill look
 
I'll find it in the book.
 
i assumed it'd be where u talk about harmonic theory for kahler mflds
 
Does an isometry of a compact metric space always have a fixed point?
 
12:35 AM
Rotate the circle
 
Shoot!
 
Hopefully you didn't need that face for something
 
yeah @Ted i dont see it but i might be a big fool
 
Eric: p. 149.
 
12:39 AM
ok word ill look at bok
oh duh how did i miss this
 
In the case of that proof, type considerations will get you what you need. This is like p. 17 (cont) of my notes.
I don't remember the counterexamples. We should work on that if you don't get 'em.
 
$(p,q)$-type.
 
oh ok the grading gotcha
 
Right.
 
12:43 AM
hmmm ok i will think
 
OK, then I won't.
 
ill be back w thoughts but probably not tonight
i have the general test tmr
 
What general test?
I won't be around tonight much anyhow.
 
This is an example given in the textbook C.W Patty Foundation of Topology, Let $\leq$ denote the dictionary order relation on $I\times I$ determined by less than or equal to on $I=[a,b], a,b\in \mathbb R$, Let $\mathscr T$ denote the order topology on $I\times I$. Then $(I\times I,\mathscr T)$ is locally connected but not locally pathwise connected. Let $p\in I \times I$. Let $U_p$ neighbourhood of $p$.
How do I prove that that there does not exist any pathwise connected neighbourhood of $p$ that sits in $U$?
 
12:44 AM
Oh.
 
at like 8am
 
For some points $p$ there's a little path, @Mathgeek. You have to pick particular points.
 
so ill be sleeping v early
 
No problem, @Eric. I am disappearing shortly and won't be back until sometime tomorrow.
 
@TedShifrin okay
 
12:46 AM
aight ill see ya tmr then, im outta here to think complex geo
 
Night, and good luck on GRE (not that you need it).
 
ya i just crushed a practice test w/o knowing the format so i am not worried
 
@Mathgeek: You should draw pictures.
 
@Daminark did you figure out the thing with the corollary of Jordan's theorem about characters? I think I got something but it might be way too complicated
 
Not quite
 
12:54 AM
 
Draw neighborhoods of points in your picture, @Mathgeek. I don't know what that circle is supposed to be.
 
yellow path won't go left right?since relation greater than satisfy points right. in the line $y=1$
neighbourhood of (0,1)
 
So what is a neighborhood of $(0,1)$ in the dictionary order? I assume that's a point at the top? You're doing $[0,1]\times [0,1]$?
 
So the idea is this: for a group $G$, let $R(G)$ be the $\Bbb{Z}$-submodule of the class functions on $G$ $F_C(G)$ (using the notation from Serre here) generated by all irreducible characters, then for a subgroup $H$, a restriction of a character is again a character so we get that $\mathrm{Res}_H^G:R(G) \to R(H)$ is well-defined, note that the irreducible characters form a $\Bbb Z$-basis for $R(G)$, so using Jordan's theorem,
we can show that the map $\mathrm{Res}_H^G:F_C(G) \to F_C(H)$ is not injective
 
Forget paths for now. What are neighborhoods of points?
 
12:57 AM
but since the characters form an orthogonal basis for $R(G)$, we get that $\Bbb C \otimes_{\Bbb Z} R(G) \cong F_C(G)$
 
thanks @MatheinBoulomenos
 
now if we assume that $\mathrm{Res}_H^G R(G) \to R(H)$ is injective, then tensoring with $\Bbb C$ would give us that $\mathrm{Res}_H^G:F_C(G) \to F_C(H)$ is injective ($\Bbb C$ is a flat $\Bbb Z$-module), so the map $\mathrm{Res}_H^G:R(G) \to R(H)$ has nontrivial kernel
 
What is a basis element around $(1/2,1/2)$? What is a basis element around $(1/2,1)$ or $(1/2,0)$?
 
@TedShifrin sorry it will be like a open rectangles. right?
 
NOOOOO.
That's product topology.
This is what you have to visualize correctly.
 
Zee
1:01 AM
@TedShifrin there is a tough question that I saw , I don’t want any help solving it but I wanna understand
Can a complete manifold with non negative ricci curvature have finite volume
 
let $f \in R(G)$ be an element in the kernel of $\mathrm{Res}_H^G$, then $f=\sum_{i=1} a_i \chi_i$, where the $a_i$ are integers and the $\chi_i$ are the irreducible characters of $G$, so now because the $a_i$ are integers, we can just consider $g=\sum_{i=1} 2|a_i| \chi_i$, then both $g$ and $g+f$ have positive integer coefficients, so they are actually characters
 
Zee
How is volume defined here ?
 
but since $f$ is in the kernel of $\mathrm{Res}_H^G$, these restrict to the same character
 
@Zee: What about a sphere?
Volume is defined by the Riemannian metric.
 
these types of line. right?
 
1:08 AM
@Mathgeek: Totally not.
Remember this is an order topology. So basis elements are open intervals in the order. So a neighborhood of $(1/2,1/2)$ is an open interval from one point less than that to another point greater than that. How could that look?
 
okay
 
Can anybody help me with the following? -> Consider $(\mathbb{R}^{4},-tdt^{2}+dx^{2}+dy^{2}+dz^{2})$ This is a flat pseudo Riemannian manifold. With the coordinate transformation $X=x,Y=y,Z=z,T=sign(t)\frac{2}{3}\sqrt{sign(t)t}^{3}$ the metric has the form g=-sign(t)dT^{2}+dX^{2}+dY^{2}+dZ^{2}.

What are the geodesics? For some reason I get the following... which is not the geodesics as shown in the paper: $T(X)=\pm\frac{X}{\sqrt{sign(t)}}+c$.
 
means p lies some where in the open parallel to x axis or open ray parallel to y axis. right
?
 
No, @MathGeek.
You really need to sit down and figure this out and stop guessing.
The axes are very different. An interval like $(1/2,1/4)$ to $(1/2,3/4)$ is a neighborhood of that point.
You need to think about how the dictionary order works.
 
okay
 
1:12 AM
Then think about a point on the top or bottom.
@eigenvalue: I'm not going to take the time to figure this out, but think about what the general solution will be. That certainly isn't it. I don't know about what happens around $t=0$.
OK, I'm gone.
 
Zee
I have misheard the question in class since the prof said it’s not easy
 
@TedShifrin Is there a way to find out (see from he equations) whether the author is talking about null geodesics or timeline geodesics?
 
Zee
Take care ted
 
1:30 AM
@Mathein damn that is quite the argument
 
@Daminark yeah but maybe there's something easier if Serre doesn't mention at all how you get from Jordan's theorem to the statement of the characters
 
Possibly
 
1:59 AM
So, trying to prove that path connectedness implies connectedness. I'm trying to go for contradiction, but I think I'm missing a detail. Assuming that you have a space $X$ which is not connected, but is path connected. So, there exist open $A,B\subseteq X$ s.t. $A\cup B=X, A\cap B=\emptyset$, and I take $a\in A$, $b\in B$. Since $X$ is path connected, it must be possible to construct a continuous function $f:[0,1]\rightarrow X$ s.t. $f(0)=a$ and $f(1)=b$.
I think I should be showing that, since $[0,1]$ cannot be written as the union of two disjoint, open sets (in the standard metric topology), that somehow implies that such a continuous function is impossible. However, how to show that is eluding me.
 
2:37 AM
I just invalidated that flag on a seemingly-inoffensive comment from an hour and a half ago. If the flagger thinks I've made an error feel free to ping me or invite me to a private room to explain--otherwise I'm assuming it was a mis-click.
 
3:08 AM
@Rithaniel You have it set up perfectly. Look at $f^{-1}(A)$ and $f^{-1}(B)$.
 
Good evening.
 
Hello, @CaptainAmerica.
 
I learned the true meaning of an ordered field today. It wasn't as complicated as I expected. @TedShifrin
 
No, CaptainAmerica, you already know.
 
Well, I learned that I know what an ordered field is. After "learning" what it was, I realized it's pretty spelled out in Spivak. I'm just more certain now.
 
3:16 AM
OK.
 
That's pretty much it, I guess.
@TedShifrin Good night then.
 
Well, OK, good night. :)
 
Ok, well actually not goodnight. What shape is that on your avatar thingy? I keep thinking it's the part you hold on a kite, which it obviously isn't. @Ted
 
I think the kite thing is pretty much a standard cylinder.
I never answer that question, however. Lots have asked.
 
:-/ I don't know if that's you admitting it's a thing or you stating it's a cylinder.
I'll add that to my list of things to find out if it's the last thing I do.
 
3:25 AM
Huh?
 
I'm not sure what you're talking about with kites. But I thought that would be a regular cylinder. My shape certainly isn't.
 
Oh, ok. Yeah.
That's what I was trying to say.
I mean when I look at your thing it reminds me a kite handle, but I know that it isn't - which is why I asked. Then you said you'll never say, so now I'll have to find out if it's the last thing I do.
I should have just gone to bed.
 
I'm just a meanie.
Night :)
 
Yes >:|
Ok, I'm really leaving now. Until next time Shifrin.
 
user131753
3:57 AM
Is the following system of arithmetic, say $\mathsf{APA}$, incomplete where $\mathsf{APA}$ denotes the system obtained by removing the induction axiom schema from $\mathsf{PA}$ and adding the following axiom schema, ${\displaystyle \forall {\bar {y}}\neg(\varphi (0,{\bar {y}})\land \forall x(\varphi (x,{\bar {y}})\to \varphi (S(x),{\bar {y}}))\to \forall x\varphi (x,{\bar {y}}))}$?
 
user131753
I think that it is because its incompleteness would follow from the Robinson arithmetic. Am I right?
 
4:22 AM
Does the ring $R = \mathbb { Z } _ { 7 } \times \mathbb { Z } _ { 25 }$
have any zero divisors?
I say it doesn't but I am not extremely confident about my answer
hmm actually now that I think about it: (0,1) * (1,0) are both zero divisors
30 zero divisors!
 
4:49 AM
Seeing today's horribly disorganised conversation, wishes this chat can be multiplied by its corresponding zero divisor
 
5:08 AM
Hi all! Its known that a locally compact group admits a Haar measure on itself. I wanted to know where does the sigma algebra of that Haar measure come from? I want to what the sigma algebra is, ans then carry out some integration over that. And I don't know what kind of integration would fit in there.
 
5:46 AM
Hey all, can we not modify this proof by saying that there would exist an integer m such that $a^m=a$, then $a^{m-1}=1$, so $a^{m-2}$ is the inverse since $m>2$?
 
How do you know that $ax = y$ and $bx = y$ implies $a = b$?
Oh nvm you have cancellation
 
$\text { If } \operatorname { char } ( D ) = 0 , \text { then all nonzero elements of } D \text { have infinite additive order. }$ where $D$ is an integral domain
So to show this I basically assume $char(D) = 0$
which means for all $a \in D$ there is no such $m$ such that $m \cdot a = 0_R$
my question is there may be no such m for all $a$ such that $m \cdot a = 0_R$
 
6:03 AM
@SharathZotis sorry not taught characteristic yet :/
 
No worries @GaurangTandon
however how do I know that there isn't an m for some nonzero element, $x \in D$ such that $m*x = e = 0_R$
Right, so then do we even need char(D) = 0?
do all nonzero elements in an integral domain have infinite additive order?
 
@SharathZotis it's an integral domain, isn't it? then there can't be any such $m$ :/
no zero divisor property iirc
 
@SharathZotis Well, we have finite fields where every element does not have characteristic zero
 
Right, but Im curious as to why then we need to have "if $char(D) = 0$"
 
and finite fields are examples of integral domains
 
6:09 AM
Wait Im a bit confused
m is not an element of the integral domain D
Basically what I know is that there is no such m such that $a + a \cdots + a = 0_R$ m times
for all $a \in D$
What I am trying to show is that for any element $x \in D$ there is no $n$ such that $a + a + \cdots + a = e = 0_R$
n times
 
By distributivity we have:
$a+a+a+a+ \cdots + a = 0_{R}$
$a (1+1+1+1+\cdots +1) = 0_R$
Rings are closed under $+$ and $\times$, thus the pile of ones has to be some element in the integral domain, and cannot be outside
 
Hey guys thanks for the stars. I love stars, though I love money more.
 
actually screw that
104
Q: Example of infinite field of characteristic $p\neq 0$

AspirinCan you give me an example of infinite field of characteristic $p\neq0$? Thanks.

$\operatorname { char } ( D ) = 0 , \implies \text { all nonzero elements of } D \text { have infinite additive order. }$
 
@WillHunting when are you going to man-up and make new video on Youtube?
You made me cry last time you bastard @WillHunting
 
@Jacksoja Hiii, I have 5 now. Taking a break because I am not feeling well.
 
6:19 AM
My recent arXiv paper that I am excited about : A Function Fitting Method
 
Im confused @Secret isnt that what I am trying to show?
 
@WillHunting Feel better man ! I enjoyed your videos <3
 
Following your step $a ( 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + \cdots + 1 ) = 0 _ { R }$
since rings are closed the pile of ones is some element lets say $x \in D$
 
If $m \not\in D$ then by definition it does not contribute to $D$'s characteristic
 
6:23 AM
so we get $a(x) = 0_R$
however as it is an integral domain then this can't be possible without a or x being $0_R$
Is this right?
 
yup because $D$ has no zero divisors
so $ax=0_R$ implies $a=0_R$ or $x=0_R$
 
However, how are we using the fact that char(D) = 0 to show that nonzero elements in D have infinite order
It seems to me we are just using the fact that D is an integral domain to show that nonzero elements in D have infinite order?
 
But isn't zero characteristics is defined to be adding infinitely many ones to get zero and hence one can never add any element finitely many times to get zero and hence all elements have infinite order?
I don't see anything to prove in "char(D) = 0 to show that nonzero elements in D have infinite order"
it's basically how ring characteristics are defined
Expressing in contrapositive. If there exists at least one element that has finite order, then char() > 0
 
Im super confused
so basically this implication "$\operatorname { char } ( D ) = 0 , \Longrightarrow \text { all nonzero elements of } D \text { have infinite additive order. }$"
we prove by just using the fact that $D$ is an integral domain
we don't use that $char(D) = 0$?
 
Ok maybe I should phrase it this way:
What we have proved is:
 
6:42 AM
ok fuck I am not sure anymore. Turns out I need to understand how prime ideals work in order to correctly understood characteristic, and I have been struggling with anything that has the word "prime" in it for ages. Beh, I am out of here
0
Q: Showing that the characteristic of a commutative ring R without zero divisors is 0 or prime

Mathematicing Question: Suppose that $R$ is a commutative ring without zero-divisors. Show that the characteristic of $R$ is either $0$ or prime. I have established that every element in a commutative ring $R$ without zero divisors have the same additive order $n$. Now, if no such additive order n exi...

 
No worries thank you so much for your help.
 
7:20 AM
@SharathZotis did you see my ping yesterday?
@CaptainAmerica16 Have you seen the proof that no finite field can be ordered?
 
 
2 hours later…
9:51 AM
@Jacksoja Actually now there are 6 altogether, but the last 2 are not songs but vocal exercises. =D
 
I have now also started smuggling a bit of algebraic geometry into the exercises of the algebra course.
 
@TobiasKildetoft such evilness :P
 
@LeakyNun Yeah, the students will just have to put up with the evils of learning something useful :)
 
@TobiasKildetoft ok so now a group representation is a continuous homomorphism from a locally compact hausdorff group to the group of unitary operations of a hilbert space
 
algebraic geometry in a nutshell = too long to describe
 
10:04 AM
I do need to not do too much of it, as not all of them have taken topology (and those that have are taking it right now)
 
> I do need to not do
that's a mouthful
 
10:22 AM
needless needles
2
 
Nice
 
@TobiasKildetoft I guess it's some commutative algebra?
 
@WillHunting ^^^
 
@WillHunting Yeah, basically just the definition of Spec and its topology
as well as mSpec
 
Hiii @LeakyNun.
 
10:25 AM
Then showing that mSpec of a polynomial ring over the complex numbers can be identified with $n$-tuples of complex numbers (assuming Zariski's Lemma, which I did not want to go through)
 
@WillHunting "^^^" means "look 3 messages above"
@TobiasKildetoft or just Nullstellensatz lol
 
@LeakyNun Yeah, I really don't want to get into that at this stage.
 
@LeakyNun I see. I never thought of needless needles. Interesting.
 
@TobiasKildetoft that's a pity
 
But showing that maximal ideals have the required form mainly needs Zariski's Lemma as the non-trivial part. The rest is a fine exercise with a few guiding steps
 
10:27 AM
@LeakyNun Do you want to use Hangouts with me?
 
@WillHunting sure
 
@LeakyNun But I don't have your Google address. I think we need that instead of the Yahoo address.
 
We are done with ring theory now anyway, and moving into rep theory
 
:0
In rep theory now actually we're starting rep theory of S_n
Fun stuff
 
@LeakyNun Maybe you can send me a mail using your Google address, then I will send you a Hangouts invite.
 
10:30 AM
hi
I've got a question,
Why does 2s complement give a negative form of the number?
 
@Daminark it sure is
@WillHunting I sent a message to your address in Hangouts
@parvin the intuition is that if x=-4 then x+4=0
but (2^n-4)+4 also = 0 for large enough n that causes overflow
 
@Daminark Yeah, rep theory of symmetric groups is quite amazing
 
@LeakyNun I don't see it anywhere...
 
@WillHunting somehow it is still sending..
 
@LeakyNun I set my Hangouts settings to people with my mail can send me an invitation, not send me a message directly. Maybe that is why you can't send me anything.
 
10:35 AM
how to send an invitation?
oh phone?
 
@LeakyNun I tell you what. Since you don't know how Hangouts works very well, just send me a mail from your Google address, is that OK? Then I will send you the invite instead.
 
ok
done
 
@LeakyNun a very silly question ! if x+y=0 what is the x relative to y? and if (in base 10) x+y = 10 again what is x relative to y?
 
I don't understand your question
let's say you take x+13=0
then you can solve it as x=...99987
 
how is that possible!?
 
10:43 AM
well you only store a finite number of digits
for the case of the 2's complement
 
is that number complement of 13?
 
yes, in base ten
it's basically asking yourself, how to calculate 10000000 - 13
you write 13 as 0000013, and then flip the digits to get 9999986, and then add one to get 9999987
 
I see!
thank you
 
Am I reading some kind of floating point magic?
(checks transcript to see what this topic is about)
 
@Secret 2's complement
 
10:52 AM
never heard of it before...
Hmm... google said it is something related to radix
might investigate it later
I wonder if it has relation with the more well known "add to 10" arithmetic
In mathematics and computing, the method of complements is a technique used to subtract one number from another using only addition of positive numbers. This method was commonly used in mechanical calculators and is still used in modern computers. The nines' complement of a number is formed by replacing each digit with nine minus that digit. To subtract a decimal number y (the subtrahend) from another number x (the minuend) two methods may be used: In the first method the nines' complement of x is added to y. Then the nines' complement of the result obtained is formed to produce the desired result...
confirmed
detail
Basically, a biased monte carlo sampling iterated until full understanding of a given maths domain is reached
another detail is that I first learnt about axioms, definitions, elementary derivations, general cases, and then examples and counterexamples, before converging to the theorems themselves
 
11:22 AM
@TobiasKildetoft hi
 
@Liad Hi
 
im trying to understand Georges's answer here :math.stackexchange.com/questions/106464/…
does his answer fine to you? @TobiasKildetoft
 
ok so what's not clear to me is: $a$ is a homogeneous ideal in $S = k[x_0,\dots,x_n]$
if $P \in Z(a)$ then for all $f\in a $$f(\lambda a_0, \dots,\lambda a_n) = 0$ for all $\lambda \ne 0$ and $[a_0: ,\dots,:a_n] =P $
so $f$ vanishes on the line of $(a_0,\dots,a_n) \in \Bbb A ^{n+1}$. right? @TobiasKildetoft
 
11:29 AM
why this implies that $P \in V(a) \subset \Bbb A^{n+1}$?
 
By definition?
 
$P$ don't live in $\Bbb A^{n+1}$
$a$ isn't either
this what's not clear to me
 
@Liad $P$ corresponds to a set of points in $\mathbb{A}^{n+1}$
 
right. a line.
 
So I guess using $\in$ is not quite correct
And I see that George also does not write that
 
11:37 AM
ok so maybe if i say this: $(a_0,\dots,a_n) \in V(a)$ iff $f(a_0.. a_n) =0$ for al l$f\in A$ iff $f(\lambda a_0...\lambda a_n) $ for all $\lambda \ne 0$ iff $f([a_0,..,a_n] ) =0$ iff $[a_0,..,a_n] \in Z(a)$ , what do you think?
the second iff is true only because $f$ is homogenuous
 
You have quite a few typos there which makes it slightly hard to tell what precisely you wanted to write
 
ah. cant edit
 
Is L( V,W) same as HOM (V,W) ?
 
forgot some "," this is what you mean ?@TobiasKildetoft
 
@Jacksoja Usually, yes
 
11:40 AM
and $f\in a$
 
okay thanks
 
@Liad You also have both a capital A and an a and a missing =0
 
right
 
and how does one prove that L(V,W) is infinite dim ?
can we find base for that vector space?
 
i shouldn't rush to write it.. sorry.
without the typos, does it look right to you? @TobiasKildetoft
 
11:41 AM
@Jacksoja Well, assuming either of the spaces is infinite dimensional, you reduce to the case where the other is 1-dimensional
@Liad Looks right
 
in my book the hint is "interpret the problem in terms of the affine n+1 space whose affine coordinate ring is S" @TobiasKildetoft
(actually its the same question as in the link i sent)
 
@TobiasKildetoft I have this situation, V is finite dim, Dim V > 0 and W is infite dim, need to show that L(V,W) is infinite dim
 
@Liad Sure, and that is precisely what this does
 
but not sure what is a base for such v.s
the elements of L(V,W) are linear maps
 
@TobiasKildetoft where did we interpret S as $K(Y)$ ?
 
11:43 AM
@Jacksoja You don't need a basis, just an infinite collection of linearly independent vectors
 
@TobiasKildetoft okay thanks let me try that
 
@Liad In passing to lines in $n+1$-dimensional affine space
 
that's looking at $S$ as $K[x_0,..,x_n] / I(Y)$ for some $Y$ ?
 
@TobiasKildetoft Hi again, to show the existence of linearly indep set of functions that are linear from V-->W
I am not sure what is the span of (S)
S being a linear function
 
same as it would be in any other vector space
 
11:51 AM
am lost with this exercice, clealy missing something
so i take linear combinations of linear functions
but if W is infinite dim
we can never have finite functions from V--W
 
12:51 PM
is it possible that $V(a) = \emptyset $ but $a \ne k[x_0,..,x_n]$ ?
 
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