« first day (2724 days earlier)      last day (2289 days later) » 

4:00 AM
Remember to make sure that your integral has du or dx at the end, and remember not to interchange the two.
 
So, I have a point on the complex plane, call it $z_0$ such that it generates an electric field at every point on the plane. The intensity of the field varies as the distance between $z_0$ and the point and is directed along the line from $z_0$ to the point. I have to show that $F(z) = \frac{1}{ \bar z- \bar z_0}$.
 
@Semiclassical it wasnt a question. it was a statement. I know it is equivalent. I just wanted to make you werent referring to a different meaning of "heat equation" such as an equation for determing the heat output by a thermodynamic engine with a certain efficiency.
 
I see.
 
I was saying to consider 3D modelling related uses to deal with the heat equation.
 
I can do it if it varies as teh square of the distance, but otherwise cannot
 
4:05 AM
ok so i get 1/8*(ln(4x^2 + 1) + C
 
Take the derivative, does it give you back what you started with?
 
no
arctan(2x)/2 does how ever
so either im doing u substitution wrong still
 
@WDUK You're closer, but it looks like you still made a mistake.
 
or im not getting it
well i have 1/u du where u is 4x^2 + 1 derivative being 8x so i apply 1/8
 
Specifically, it looks like you mistakenly substituted 1/8*du for dx.
 
4:08 AM
@TannerSwett Though, oof. Finding the probabilities for that doesn't seem great.
 
2
Q: Verifying an integration method for step function integrals.

The Great DuckI should note that this is an integration algorithm and therefore intermediate steps DO appear to be unjustified. The purpose of this question is to justify or reject this algorithm as always giving correct solutions. Suppose we have a function $f(x)$ that has no vertical asymptotes and can be w...

500 rep bounty to whoever proves this
please help guys
 
oh im missing an x
 
Right.
 
but wouldnt that give 1/8 coefficient for 1/u x du that doesn't seem right
 
This much is, in fact, correct: if u = 4x^2 + 1, then the integral of 1/(4x^2 + 1) dx equals the integral of 1/8 * 1/u * x du.
... assuming I haven't made any mistakes there.
 
4:15 AM
yeh thats what i get
 
So, what we've found out here is correct, but it's not useful, since it still has an x in there.
 
so that means the substitution doesn't work/help ?
unless it can still be solved that way
 
I think that's right. It's been a few years since I did integrals, so I don't remember this very well.
 
so there must be some way to identify when u substitution won't be a good option here without having wasted 15 minutes :P
 
Right, but using $u = 4x^2 + 1$, we have that $x = \pm\sqrt{\frac{u-1}{4}}$.
 
4:18 AM
ah crap, I think i infinite-looped my mathematica
 
So you could substitute that in, but you'd see you end up with the same problem again
Practice a lot. You'll learn what works and what doesn't work
 
is there no known rule to know what will and won't ?
 
Experience helps
@TannerSwett I should also point out that mathematically you're doing a 1D random walk: Start at x=50, walk 10 right with probability p and walk 10 left with probability 1-p, subject to the expected change in position after one step being -0.5. The walk halts when you reach x=0.
 
finding antiderivatives is not like finding derivatives. there's no algorithm
 
There are patterns you'll come across, of course.
 
4:23 AM
i learned that $f(z) = \frac{1}{z}$ corresponds to rotating the riemann sphere! so cool!
 
this is all i can really find on when u sub is viable:
A u-sub can be done whenever you have something containing a function (we'll call this g), and that something is multiplied by the derivative of g
 
$\int f(x)\,dx=\int f(g(u))g'(u)\,du$
Which of course is just the substitution rule.
The thing with a u-sub is that you're hoping that $f(x)$ is something simple enough to integrate by hand
 
ah so there is a rule thats what i was looking for
 
yeah. but that's just using $x=g(u)\implies dx=g'(u)\,du$
You can swap the roles of x and u in there, of course
 
4:27 AM
Wow. That is genuinely beautiful.
 
@Semiclassical thanks for sharing that
 
@Semiclassical aka inverse chain rule
 
Riemann was a smart guy.
Honestly one of the most incredible things I've seen.
 
4:28 AM
Mobius transformations are wicked cool eh
 
Would this extend to higher dimensions? Doesn't seem like it depends on any particular properties about $\mathbb{C}$.
So, we have a 4 dimensional sphere 'rotating' and that corresponds to some transformation of 3-space
 
It's relying on stereographic projection
so there's definitely higher analogues
 
Right. We have a 1-1 map between the sphere and the plane
 
Hmm... Is moebius transformation make sense on quarternions?
 
mostly one to one
 
4:29 AM
I know there's some crazy stuff involving the Hopf fibration which I suspect is relevant here
 
i hope to learn quarternions at some point i use them a lot in programming but have no real understanding of the numbers
 
Why do you use them in your programming? Seems like a niche thing to use
 
Rotations.
 
you get gimbol lock issues in computer games
 
Ah, for gaming. got it
 
4:31 AM
Right. Though that's something I more know of than actually understand
 
quaternions are one of the easiest way to code rotations in gaming
 
I feel like the music does a good job of differentiating the two videos.
 
none of the programmers i know actually understand them lol just take the functions for granted for the most part
 
conformal maps are not as interesting in dim > 2
 
oh, the riemann sphere also provides a proof why the cardinality of hte unit disc is the same as the rest of the plane excluding the unit disc
 
4:33 AM
First one is simple and elegant, second one is rather more baroque
 
so the higher analogues of mobius transforms are way less fun
 
dat 1 - 1 map
 
@EricSilva Sad!
Hmm
 
they're still cool but they're less rich because you loos the complex analysis
 
Is there no version of stereographic projection for the 3-sphere to R^3?
 
4:34 AM
there is
 
but you still dont get all the nice conformal maps because there's no riemann mapping theorem
 
Then I think the original idea would still work, though not as nicely as in the Riemann sphere case
ahh
 
yeah, i dont get the hopf bundle one.
 
So there'd be a correspondence, but the transformations you get aren't going to be nice
 
4:36 AM
in higher dim there's only inversive guys, homotheties and isometries
 
gotta go back to my complex hmwk
 
well they're all "nice" but they're certainly less rich
 
hmm, okay
 
cf. one of the many theorems named after liouville
 
4:37 AM
lol
 
@Semiclassical Right, it's the expected time to reach a particular point in a biased random walk. I haven't been able to find a formula for that on Google.
 
I think you've got the right result, but yeah
 
Liouville's theorem is nice, but it's not as nice as the Liouville theorem, nor the theorem of Liouville. :D
 
conformal maps are still the isometries of $\mathbb{H}^{n}$ though so that's something cool about them
 
4:39 AM
@LeakyNun I meant that the proof lifts verbatim, saving you that one line.
 
@Semiclassical Huh, that's the answer to a harder version of my question. :D
 
Yeah, it's the entire distribution
 
@LeakyNun I like to math-golf :P.
 
Fun fact: It is easy to work out who is ________ because there will be a very sharp discontinuity in the graph of math chat
Even though that functionality is designed for espionage purposes, they did not aware there is a fatal flaw that will reveal their presences
We are experts at sniffing out the hiders who are in service of The One True Enemy of our kind, for we have at least 15 years of experience on that kind of socially evasive behavior that had so far escaped from persecution
 
What is this meant to mean @Secret?
 
4:48 AM
It's encrypted. Try to decode it, but it is not very important. It makes a nice anime plot though as balarka noted
 
Wait what does encrypted mean here?
 
@Semiclassical Well, I'm a bit too sleepy at the moment to extract a formula from that...
 
I see no code?
 
actually, I am not sure if riddle count as an encryption type...
 
same.
 
4:50 AM
i'll guess, ronald mcdonald is the answer
 
If N is the number of bets made before losing all your money, B is your initial bankroll, and L is your expected loss on each bet, is the formula just E(N) = B/L, as expected?
 
@TannerSwett That's my impulse as well.
But there's a way to settle it: math.stackexchange.com/q/2400386/137524
Take the answer there and let $a\to\infty$
 
In this case: $z=5$, $p=0.475$, $q=0.525$, $a=\infty$
 
turns out riddle and encryption are two separate concepts, o well, guess I need to update my terminology
so, it is a riddle, basically
 
4:55 AM
looks like their answer reduces to $D_z=z/(q-p)$ since $p<q$ and $a\to\infty$
but the expected change after one event is $(1)p+(-1)q=-(q-p)$, so this amounts to the answer you anticipated @TannerSwett
 
Nice.
This question is inspired by a true story, by the way.
I came in with $50. My first two bets were $15, and all my subsequent bets were $10.
I won the first bet and lost the following six bets.
 
What are the chances of that? The answer, of course, depends on what one means by "that".
 
Narcissus: My riddles are designed in such a way that after 3 years, even I cannot solve them
They are so heavily dependent on memory at a certain moment in time and place
But as far I knew, they are very effective at doing what it is intended to do
 
What are the chances of getting that exact sequence of wins and losses in 6 bets? 1.01%.
I mean 7 bets, of course.
The probability of getting that exact sequence of wins and losses in 6 bets is 0. :)
 
5:11 AM
A joking response to that: "The chances were 100%. It happened, after all."
 
(there's probably a deep philosophical statement inside of that, but i'm not going to venture it)
 
Pr(Stuff happens) = 100%
Pr(When it happens) < 100%
That is, we knew it happened, but we cannot predict in advance when or how frequently it will happen given any sequence
 
Pr(X|X)=1
 
yeah, because given X had happened
 
5:17 AM
right-o
 
... if X is a non-empty event.
 
true
if Pr(B)=0, then the usual formula that Pr(A|B)=Pr(A and B)/Pr(B) doesn't make a heck of a lot of sense.
 
Yeah, I don't even know how Pr(A|B) is defined when Pr(B) is 0.
 
the above is the Kolmogorov definition
 
I guess we can go one step backwards, cause bayes theorem is actually Pr(A|B)Pr(B)=Pr(A and B). Thus if Pr(B) is zero, then Pr(A and B) must be zero thus the value of Pr(A|B) is irrelevant
The probability of A given B is some value, but B never happened, thus the premise is invalid, I think...
 
5:23 AM
From the wiki page on conditional probability: "Some authors, such as de Finetti, prefer to introduce conditional probability as an axiom of probability: $P(A\cap B)=P(A|B)P(B)$. Although mathematically equivalent, this may be preferred philosophically; under major probability interpretations such as the subjective theory, conditional probability is considered a primitive entity."
 
I suspect since B never happened, "given B happened" is vacuously true...? I need to revise my logic...
 
A little later: "If P(B) = 0, then according to the simple definition, P(A|B) is undefined. However, it is possible to define a conditional probability with respect to a σ-algebra of such events (such as those arising from a continuous random variable)."
But it also goes on to indicate that such a definition runs into problems when B is a set of zero measure...
which apparently gives this:
In probability theory, the Borel–Kolmogorov paradox (sometimes known as Borel's paradox) is a paradox relating to conditional probability with respect to an event of probability zero (also known as a null set). It is named after Émile Borel and Andrey Kolmogorov. == A great circle puzzle == Suppose that a random variable has a uniform distribution on a unit sphere. What is its conditional distribution on a great circle? Because of the symmetry of the sphere, one might expect that the distribution is uniform and independent of the choice of coordinates. However, two analyses give contradic...
 
@Secret The "given" here isn't a logical connective (so it's not the logical connective of material implication).
 
"The concept of a conditional probability with regard to an isolated hypothesis whose probability equals 0 is inadmissible." -Kolmogorov
So the basic rule of how to define P(A|B) when P(B)=0 is: Don't.
 
Right... but can it be defined if we equip the probability space with appropriate additional information?
 
5:31 AM
shrug
 
 
1 hour later…
6:42 AM
@Akiva: A simple comparison test isn't going to cut it for infinite products, unless you go via the conversion to sums we were talking about.
 
Tanner, Semi: Yeah, it seems particularly for null sets, the measure is important as well the pdf, because the different ways in approaching the null set via the limiting case of a family of events will give different conditional pdfs
 
Hey there @Ted!
 
which once again brings back that issue Daminark and I discussed last year a long time ago on the issue of uncountable integrals
 
Ah you're speaking of the improper integrals?
 
yeah, on how approaching to infinity in different ways will give different results, which is why they are quite ill defined
(checking transcript)
 
6:51 AM
Yeah, there isn't a canonical way to define improper integrals in a general setting, sorta like the issue with conditional convergence
 
Aug 2 '17 at 7:00, by Daminark
@Secret so your issue immediately is $\infty - \infty$ being not well-defined
indeed
 
@Shailesh This post on meta is related to suggested edit you reviewed, so I thought it might be a good idea to let you know about that post: “Community” added swear word to answer 4 years after the answer was typed.
 
With Riemann integrals you sorta say aight, $\lim_{t\to b} \int_a^t f(s)ds$
But it's because Riemann integrals aren't defined on sets like $[a,\infty)$, while Lebesgue integrals could, in principle, make sense
And sometimes the former makes sense for an improper Riemann integral, while the function itself just fails to be Lebesgue integrable on that set
 
When we talk about Lesbegue integrals, the measure $\mu$ is often the lesbegue measure. I wonder if there is a name for the more general integrals $\int d\mu$ where $\mu$ is any kind of measure?
 
The Lebesgue integral is wrt any measure
 
 
1 hour later…
8:03 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos The biggest thing I learnt from Atiyah, apart from all that commutative algebra, is how to draw fraktur letters
 
that's important. How can you have prime ideals without fraktur letters? impossible
 
not only prime ideals
every ideal is in fraktur
 
oh right
 
Yeah I think Altman-Kleiman also uses fraktur for ideals
 
$\mathfrak{c}$
[Random]
[End random]
 
8:16 AM
Also hey there Mathein and Leaky!
Secret: that random was rather short
 
Hey @Daminark
 
How're things going?
 
Quite well, thanks. Doing number theory hw atm. And for you?
 
Hi everyone
 
Hi @Alessandro
 
8:21 AM
Doing a bit of civ reading, might do some algebra homework and/or comm alg reading
 
Civilization class. Ancient empires (by ancient they mean Ottoman ofc)
Also hey Alessandro!
 
it's weird that you have to take such a class
 
Oh, I thought that was some obscure field of maths
 
Lol yeah, I remember when I was applying to schools and had looked at Britain and was like, wait wait wait you only do major classes? And you start from day 1?
(In hindsight good thing I didn't try for Britain, at the time I probably would've shot for something like physics moreso than math)
But yeah this is my second last such class. I'll take one of the other ancient empires quarters and then I'll be done
 
8:26 AM
We have to do a few non-mayor classes, but we can choose them freely from anything non-mayor, so most math majors take physics, CS or econ classes
 
I see
 
Yeah we only have math courses here, there's only a physics and an informatics mandatory one
 
We have the general core (humanities, social science, civilization, art, math, biological science, physical science)
 
One can choose to do more physics, informatics, economics or biology courses of one wishes to, but it's not mandatory
 
Then the math major says aight, you can't use one of the generic physical science classes to do the core requirement, you have to do one of the first year physics or chemistry sequences, and you have to finish the year. And then you have some math major classes, and 4 classes which have to be outside math but within the sister departments (chem, physics, compsci, stat, etc)
After that do anything you want
 
8:30 AM
I actually liked the CS classes I took so far
 
So, I took the first quarter intro to compsci class, which was Racket (a somewhat obscure functional programming language, based off Lisp)
I did the second quarter, which was C, but it wasn't going too hot and I was a bit demotivated so I did it pass-fail instead
So that won't likely count
This spring I'm doing combinatorics, which is cross-listed math/CS so it can be used as either
Next year I'm doing mathematical logic, which should count for the last 2 quarters. Also might do formal languages this/next spring, and possibly computability, so that should also count for a few
 
in my algorithms class, we had two or three exercise sheets that were basically just graph theory. Both the class and the exercises were really proof-heavy. We actually used the Chinese Remainder theorem at some point to prove the existence of universal hashing functions (that sounds like category theory, lol) which I didn't expect
we didn't need to write a single line of code, but had to write a lot of proofs, it really felt like a math class
 
Graph theory is pretty interesting
We had the De Bruijn-Erdös theorem in the mathematical logic course
 
I found the proof that you can't sort a general list faster than $O(n\log(n))$ quite illuminating
@AlessandroCodenotti interesting. I don't see how that's related to logic
 
I know algo here started with Gale-Shapley
Not sure what they're on right now
But the stuff sounds rather fun
 
8:43 AM
@MatheinBoulomenos there's a proof via the compactness theorem looking at models of the theory of graphs
 
ah I see. The compactness theorem has really a lot of applications
 
8:56 AM
@Mathein funny thing happened in office hours today
I just remembered it now
So, one of our pset problems this week is to prove the Chinese remainder theorem
This form being, if $I$ and $J$ are ideals in $R$ such that $I + J = R$, then there's an isomorphism $R/(I\cap J) \to R/I\times R/J$
 
Do you know if this construction has a name by the way? I've seen it used a couple of times already: you start with a language $L$ and some $L$-structure $\mathfrak{U}$ and expand the language to the language $L_{\mathfrak{U}}$ by adding a constant symbol for each element of $\mathfrak{U}$ and then you consider the structure $\mathfrak{U}'$ which is just $\mathfrak{U}$ with the obvious interpretation for the constants. Basically it adds names for the elements of $\mathfrak{U}$
 
I'm guessing the intention is to take $R \to R/I \times R/J$ via $r\mapsto (r+I,r+J)$
Show that's a surjection, and it has kernel precisely $I\cap J$
Now, someone came to office hours wanting to verify his argument, which actually works
And it's really jank
Map $R/I \times R/J \to R/(I\cap J)$ via $(r+I,s+J) \mapsto (r+I)\cap (s+J)$
Literally intersecting the cosets
Probably the first time I've ever seen people care about the fact that cosets are sets and doing something with them
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I've used that, too, but I don't know a name. My knowledge of logic is really shallow
 
@Daminark that’s from Ch.1 of AM :p
 
Hi @Leaky
 
9:02 AM
hi
 
Hello!!

Let $A\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ with $A\cdot A^{\star}=A^{\star}\cdot A$ and $U$ unitary, i.e. $U^{\star}\cdot U=U\cdot U^{\star}=I$, with $U^{\star}AU=\text{diag}(\lambda_1, \ldots , \lambda_n)$, where $\lambda_k$ are the eigenvalues of $A$. Let $f(z)=\sum_{k=0}^mc_kz^k$.

I want to show that the matrix $f(A)$ has the eigenvalues $f(\lambda_k), \ k=1, \ldots , n$.

I have done the following:
$$f(A)v_j=\left (\sum_{k=0}^mc_kA^k\right )v_j=\sum_{k=0}^mc_kA^kv_j=\sum_{k=0}^mc_k\lambda_j^kv_j=\left (\sum_{k=0}^mc_k\lambda_j^k\right )v_j=f(\lambda_j)v_j$$
 
@Daminark lmao, that proof is hilarious, it's cool that it works
 
the mighty AM hath spoken: let an be a sequence of ideals. Then let phi be the canonical homomorphism from A to prod A/an. phi is surjective iff an is pairwise coprime, and phi is injective iff an have trivial intersection
@AlessandroCodenotti Henkin?
 
@Leaky I see
@Mathein yeah I know, it's beautiful. His motivation I think was from the actual Chinese remainder theorem
 
Henkin adds witnesses for the existential sentences
 
9:06 AM
oh
 
Okay maybe not "actual" but like, the original form of solving $x = a_i (m_i)$ equations
 
that’s upward Lowenheim-Skolem isnt it
 
nah, that's not needed
you can use this construction for a version of lowenheim-skolem that produces elementarily equivalent models I think
 
9:48 AM
The algebraists are at work at this time of the day
I shall not be involved in this
 
Too late, you're a trespasser
 
@Daminark Shoot! I have been detected. I shall use homeomorphism to escape
 
Speaking of homeomorphism, here's a fun problem
Find all maximal ideals of $C([0,1])$
 
ez
the ones vanishing at a pt on [0, 1]
 
Lol nice
 
9:54 AM
More generally if X is a compact Hausdorff space maxSpecC(X) is homeomorphic to X
the map sending the maximal ideal of functions vanishing at p to p
@LeakyNun This is an exercise in A-M
This is they key motivating example for using prime spectrum in algebraic geometry
very wonderful that something as algebraic as "maximal ideals of C(X) with the Zariski topology" captures all the topology of X
 
What's the topology on mspec?
I mean you just said Zariski but like
I've only ever heard of Zariski in the context of algebraic sets
 
Ah yes, so think about Spec R, the set of prime ideals of R
 
@Dami Re:functional analysis, I'm beginning to really like Brezis' book
 
For any ideal I of R, the declare the set of prime ideals of R containing I to be a closed subset of Spec R
The topology is generated by that basis of closed sets
maxSpec R is a subset of Spec R, so inherits the subspace topology
 
@Alessandro it's pretty good
I'm using more Buhler-Salamon
 
10:05 AM
It's kind of not intuitive because Spec R is rarely Hausdorff
 
Spaces which aren't Hausdorff are fake news
 
Good luck doing algebraic geometry then
You're allowed to say nonHausdorff spaces are fake news if and only if you're a topology/geometry enthusiast
If you're and algebraist who says that... rip
 
That's because spaces are fake news
Don't put topologies on my shit
I'm just gonna do finite group theory tbh
 
lmao
well you're going to be surprised to see the representation variety then
 
makes mental note to ignore the representation variety
 
10:09 AM
also
as a wise man once said
Jan 8 at 2:02, by Ted Shifrin
no one cares about finite group theory.
 
False. I do. QED
Ah I do love me some of those decisive victories
 
you're not a person
you're a alien from outer space
 
His message didn't say "person"
 
implicitly!
 
Also person ≠ human
Triple rekt
 
10:11 AM
fugg
 
OH FUGG
 
You will be happy to note that we're doing more dynamics in functional though
These past two days we did Kakutani, Eberlain-Smulyan, and Krein Milman
But the last one, I think is useful in ergodic theory
 
Oh yeah I was told Krein-Milman
 
Something about extremal points being ergodic measures or something
 
10:14 AM
yup
I think I'll steer clear out of hard measure theoretic dynamics for now though
I don't have background
 
Fair
 
Did you have a looksi at rotation number?
 
Not quite, I haven't had much time what with classes and the like
 
Mm I see
 
Anyway I should probably try to sleep since it's almost 4:30 and I want to be up by 10:30
 
10:20 AM
Yeah good night!
 
10:59 AM
1
Q: $G’$ be the graph constructed by squaring the weights of edges in $G$

Mithlesh UpadhyayLet $G$ be a weighted graph with edge weights greater than one and $G’$ be the graph constructed by squaring the weights of edges in $G$. Let $T$ and $T’$ be the minimum spanning trees of $G$ and $G’$, respectively, with total weights $t$ and $t’$. Which of the following statements is TRUE? $T’...

 
11:37 AM
Balarka is now an algebraic geometer
Oh boy, I hadn't seen the star board
Balarka is now an algebraic geometry
 
12:02 PM
If $G$ is the associated functor from the category of $\mathbb{Q}$-algebras to the category of groups of some algebraic group over $\mathbb{Q}$, is $G(\mathbb{Q})$ a subgroup of $G(\mathbb{R})$? Why?
 
12:45 PM
@abenthy I'm not sure that's the case, but I'd have to think about it. Usually one takes a subgroup functor of $G$, which would be some subfunctor $H$ where $H(A)$ is a subgroup of $G(A)$.
 
@Narcissusjewel Whats interesting is that what I wrote is the case for all common examples like $G_m$, $G_a$, $SL_n$, $GL_n$ and so on, but I don't think its included in the definition of algebraic groups as functors.
 
Guys, I answered a simple probability question that asks to solve a probability excercise, and my answer got accepted. But I think the other answer present gives another result, and the assumptions it makes are probably more in line with the text of the excercise. The question is this: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2610399/having-difficulty-understanding-probabilities-in-this-question/2610457#2610457

Can you confirm that the two answers give different results and the answer that is not accepted makes better assumptions? I'm a student myself, and sometimes I make really bad mista
 
1:13 PM
Hey, another Italian!
 
Yes :))
 
Where are you studying?
 
CS at Sapienza in Rome
 
Cool, I'm studying math in Trento
 
Can you help me with the question above?
 
1:23 PM
I think the intended interpretation was the one in the second answer, but the question is really unclear as written
 
Thank you. The problem I see with my answer is that my interpretation probably means that the people choosing the floor to exit at base their decision on other people's. And that's pretty "unreasonable" to assume.
 
1:49 PM
Hey guys, anybody knows about and want to help me a bit with understanding first order linear ODEs? math.stackexchange.com/questions/2610510/…
 

« first day (2724 days earlier)      last day (2289 days later) »