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1:00 PM
@0celo7 I guess it should have been obvious to me that those are actually the curvature of the lines. Just writing down the definition makes it fall out. Thanks.
 
@abenthy give the question a shot dont ask to ask just ask
 
@0celo7 Curvature of a curve is the reciprocal of the radius of the circle which fits it the best?
At that point.
 
No, of a surface
 
@BalarkaSen what's the curvature at the middle point of a saddle? infinity?
 
you can compute the curvature by looking at the circumference of little circles on the surface
 
1:02 PM
@DHMO -1
 
Can latex be used here? $1+1$ test
 
@BalarkaSen wait, negative curvature?
 
@0celo7 No, not yet.
@DHMO Yep.
 
@BalarkaSen how do they work?
 
I am not sure what that question means.
 
1:03 PM
what does negative curvature even mean?
how can a circle have a negative radius?
 
@BalarkaSen I must admit, it's not obvious to me off the top of my head why the eigenvalues give the curvatures of those lines.
But I know that's the correct interpretation
 
@abenthy tinyurl.com/cfqcvpc for latex
 
But maybe Ted has some more equations that I don't remember.
 
Just write down a proof, @0celo7. You can do it.
@DHMO A circle doesn't have negative curvature... in any case we're talking about curvature of surfaces here.
 
Okay, so for a space X with fundamental group pi, universal covering X~ and a Z[pi]-module V one defines the homology with local coefficients in V of X as H_n(X;V) = H_n(C_*(X~) tensored with V over Z[pi]). Now my question is, is there a long exact sequence ... -> H_n(A;V) -> H_n(X;V) -> H_n(X,A;V) -> ... for pairs (X,A) ?
 
1:05 PM
@BalarkaSen Probably not. I know the shape operator off the top of my head in terms of covariant derivatives, it would get very messy :P
 
Negative curvature at a point intuitively means the surface curves away from itself at that point.
 
Because I have a construction of this in mind, but at one point, it doesnt work...
 
@BalarkaSen curves away... from itself??
 
@DHMO Or rather, curves away from itself at two different directions.
 
it doesnt look like i can help @abenthy but for refrence latex does work you just need to render it with javascript the links can be found in the top right
 
1:08 PM
@BalarkaSen I see
 
Just take the saddle point as a local model for negatively curved surfaces.
Otherwise understand the definitions.
 
@shaihorowitz okay, thanks for the note
 
If you take that as a local model, that should tell you - intuitively - the hyperboloid is negatively curved at certain points, the torus is negatively curved at two points, the pseudosphere is negatively curved, etc.
@0celo7 I wonder, to what extend is that true? Suppose I have two surface and they have the same constant curvature near a point of each. Does that mean they are locally isometric near those points?
 
Relevant
 
@0celo7 I don't see how. I said local isometry, that is, there exists an isometry between two parameterized subsurfaces of the surface containing the points of interest.
 
1:21 PM
@BalarkaSen heyo
 
@BalarkaSen I don't think there are local isometries between the middle parts of the cigar there
 
@Danu Hi.
 
So since SW numbers are intersection numbers, I'd like to understand a geometric idea of what SW classes are
So that I can see why it should say something about cobordism
 
@BalarkaSen I have to run to class, bye
No, you're right.
I'll explain later.
 
@Danu I don't think their Poincare dual is easier as a geometric model here. The idea is the following: take a cobordism $W$ from $M$ and $N$ - then $TM$ is stably $TW|_M$ (by direct summing with the trivial vector bundle that gives the normal field) and $TN$ is stably $TW|_N$.
So morally $TM$ and $TN$ should have the same "Stiefel-Whitney things", as they are stably restrictions of the same bundle. The formalization of that is SW numbers.
 
1:24 PM
I know the proof :P
 
@Danu The proof in itself gives intuition for why SW numbers give bordism invariants to me.
 
Yeah, I guess your way of phrasing it is suggestive
The emphasis on SW classes as being stable
Thanks
 
:) Glad that helped.
I think it's an interesting question what the PD's of SW classes are. I don't know the answer. Ted asked me that for $w_1$, which is easy. Also $w_n$ is PD to Euler class.
Mike asked for $w_2$, but I haven't thought about it.
 
Don't know Euler class :(
 
@BalarkaSen Does the hyperbolic space have a transitive group of isometries?
 
1:28 PM
@Danu I'll phrase it differently for a special case: if $M$ is $n$-dimensional, $w_n(M) = \chi(M) \pmod{2}$.
This generalizes to any rank $n$ bundle by Euler class.
@0celo7 Interesting question.
 
@BalarkaSen If you can prove th statement for hyperbolic space, it will be true in general
 
Since I can lift to universal cover?
 
Whoa, Bob Dylan winning the Nobel for literature
2
awwwyis
 
Exactly
 
@Danu Oh wow
 
1:31 PM
Bold move by the committee
 
great decision
 
It takes some proving, but any constant curvature surface has a covering isometric to one of the model surfaces
 
@0celo7 Isom(H^2) does acts on H^2 transitively.
 
It's clearly true for the sphere and plane
@BalarkaSen but does it have the property we want?
 
Which property?
 
1:33 PM
Namely given $p,q\in H^2$, there are open sets $U,V\subset H^2$ containing $p$ and $q$, respectively, and an isometry $U\to V$.
that might be automatic
 
I just said Isom(H^2) acts on H^2 transtively. That means, by definition of transitivity, there is an isometry taking any point to any other.
 
Yes, yes
Ok, so what you said is true
 
@Balarka I never asked what $w_2$ is pd to. Just what it does.
 
Ah, ok, misremembered.
 
@BalarkaSen Have you heard of the "geodesic deviation" equation?
 
1:38 PM
nope
 
It's a tool physicists use to describe the spread of geodesic packets
The spread depends on the sign of the curvature
that's another way to understand it
 
do you mean the jacobi equation/jacobi fields?
 
@BalarkaSen Also, is this doable if I just know the axioms, not how they're actually constructed?
 
You will never ever get anything out of the construction.
 
I read the construction/proof of existence from Hatcher, it wasn't exciting.
 
1:42 PM
That's weird
But I'd have no idea how to think about its Poincare dual and stuff with just the axioms
I mean... The axioms only tell you something about the classes of $\Bbb RP^n$
 
It shouldn't be hard to see what $w_1$ is PD to from the definition.
By not hard, I mean it should be doable from the axioms.
 
I mean, you probably want to know an iota more about w_1. But sure.
 
I guess I'm either being dumb or you know something I don't know
 
Why do you think you're dumb if you can't solve a problem a minute after it's stated?
 
You repeatedly said it's easy plus I just need the axioms
 
1:48 PM
It took him half a day or something.
 
^
I explained what I meant by easy.
 
And I also think he had more info than you did.
 
Hmm.... actually maybe you need stuff from the next section.
classifying vector bundles by maps to Grassmannians, that is.
 
lol
okay
 
@s.harp yes
 
1:53 PM
Maybe I should ponder on what $w_2$ means.
 
Compare to $w_1$, too.
 
i just need to say something to get rid of the astrix
 
2:31 PM
Work in progress algebraic structure. Found no contradictions so far, unless there is still something overlooked:
Interesting properties include:
1. The + cayley table forms a subsemigroup which is isomorphic to the left zero semigroup
2. There exists an element $a\in\textrm{WIP(3)}$ such that $(aa)a\neq a(aa)$
3. Distributive and + associative laws are controlled by the subsemigroup
4. The only 6 cases of nonassociativity can be combined into one rule
 
what is the absorb-er for addition on the extended reals?
 
In mathematics, the affinely extended real number system is obtained from the real number system ℝ by adding two elements: + ∞ and – ∞ (read as positive infinity and negative infinity respectively). These new elements are not real numbers. It is useful in describing various limiting behaviors in calculus and mathematical analysis, especially in the theory of measure and integration. The affinely extended real number system is denoted R ¯ {\displaystyle {\overline {\mathbb...
$\pm\infty$ almost does that except it does not absorb itself
 
it kind of does but it cant absorb it negative
@secret i think there may be a contradiction
you have (00) = q
q0=1
(00)0=1
(00)(00)=0=qq=1*0
(00)(00)(00)=qqq=?
 
2:52 PM
Hmm, I have no idea, the most nonassociative systems I have worked with in the past are lie algebras which they still have the Jacobi identity to breaks things apart...
 
in short the 0*q vs q*0 symmetry breaking is weird
 
But clearly, there seemed to be no rules on how brackets should be handled for the expression (00)(00)(00)
 
yeah i simply constructed it to show the table only tells us until we multiply 3 things together
 
It does seemed the sturcture can get not closed very quickly unless there's some extra axiom to control the growth of the nonassociative terms...
(well, at least we don't get cases like 0=1, 0=q and 1=q)
 
Btw what is a magma with identity and not all elements with inverses called?
 
3:00 PM
@BalarkaSen what story did you end up translating?
 
@Danu "House of Asterion" by Borges. I asked; translating already translated stories doesn't seem to be an issue.
 
loop i think
 
@BalarkaSen But it ain't right :P
 
ok
 
Yeah, it's a bit odd. But w/e, as long as I have finished my work with the least effort.
 
3:04 PM
@BalarkaSen
hii
 
@BalarkaSen High school spirit is strong in this one :D
 
I went to my home, after a week, I again came back here :p
6
Q: 3-manifold examples of homomorphisms between fundametnal groups that are not induced by continuous maps

user101010I am looking for some examples of closed, orientable 3-manifolds $M$ and $N$ and a homomorphism $\phi : \pi_1(M) \to \pi_1(N)$ such that $\phi$ is not induced by any continuous map $f : M \to N$. Are there examples of this occurring for lens spaces? I do not believe that this phenomenon can occ...

 
@Danu except that I want my effort to be spent on mathematics instead, not dating.
 
this question looks interesting
 
3:06 PM
@BalarkaSen that's just you being insane
:)
HAVE YOU NO HORMONES? ;)
 
judge not anothers utility function lest yee be judged
 
Judge me baby
 
@Anubhav fun.
 
Reminds me of optimizing weight vectors for utility functions in matlab
 
@Danu meh
 
3:09 PM
you complain to much about your position of authority that many would kill for just because you need to condense information @danu
feel teh burn
 
hahaha
> position of authority
I wish :'(
 
I feel you there haha, its more homework not more power
power = the ability for one to accomplish ones utility function
thats why the utility companies make bank
 
A non-associative algebra (or distributive algebra) is an algebra over a field where the binary multiplication operation is not assumed to be associative. That is, an algebraic structure A is a non-associative algebra over a field K if it is a vector space over K and is equipped with a K-bilinear binary multiplication operation A × A → A which may or may not be associative. Examples include Lie algebras, Jordan algebras, the octonions, and three-dimensional Euclidian space equipped with the cross product operation. Since it is not assumed that the multiplication is associative, using parentheses...
Hmm, see if any 4 element rules can help me out here... NB just proved jacobi identity is not obeyed by WIP(3) due to the + left zero subsemigroup basically causing only the leftmost term to survive
 
hahaha
You sound like a funny guy (gal?)
 
Hello!!!
Let $L=\{ (x,y): x^2+y^2<5\}$.
Suppose that we have a function $v(x,y)$ that is harmonic in $L$ and $\Omega \subset L$ an arbitrary space such that $(0,0)$ belongs to that space.
Suppose that $v$ is equal to $1$ at the boundary of $\Omega$.
How can we compute the integral $\int_{x^2+y^2 \leq 4} v(x,y) dxdy$ ?

First I thought that we could use the second version of the mean value theorem. But then we couldn't use the fact that $v$ is equal to $1$ at the boundary of $\Omega$. Could we? If not, could you give me a hint how else we could compute the integral?
 
3:15 PM
Hello!!

Does the equation $x^2+2y^2=1$ have non-zero solutions?
 
guy, good not assuming @ danu
 
@MaryStar both terms of the left hand side are non-negative
(assuming that both variables are real)
 
@shaihorowitz So your profile says you work on math: What kind of math are you interested in?
 
The solutions are those on the ellipse formed at z=1
 
What do we get from that? @DHMO
 
3:19 PM
Hello @DanielFischer
Did you see my question? Do you have an idea?
 
i only published once and it was in non linear dynamics, fell out of acadamia due to depression just getting back in. research solo time i was alone mostly on discrete maths
 
Okay
 
@MaryStar are the variables limited to integers?
 
We have that $x,y\in \mathbb{Q}$. @DHMO
 
@Evinda your approach sounds correct,
 
3:24 PM
@MaryStar let x=a/b and y=c/d, then we have $(ad)^2 + 2(bc)^2 = (bd)^2$
 
fun fact euclids elements 4 axioms were not nearly enough as shown by godel an example of a missing axiom is that a line contains at least two points. a second is the axiom that space is continuous and any circles that look like they over lap do in fact overlap at a point, any else think of any missing axioms
 
@shaihorowitz I'm personally not so interested in the foundational matters
 
@MaryStar $a^2 + 2(bc/d)^2 = b^2$
I don't think my approach is helpful
 
@danu what's your thing?
 
please find others sorry
 
3:26 PM
Geometry/topology of manifolds
 
@MaryStar what was your question
what overall topology would you give the universe?
 
K, got physics done.
 
My question is if the equation $x^2+2y^2=1$ has non-zero solutions. @shaihorowitz
 
Back to math.
 
@marystar are we working in the real numbers?
 
3:28 PM
We have that $x,y\in \mathbb{Q}$. @shaihorowitz
 
@shaihorowitz Topology? No idea... Black hole singularities n shit make it hard
 
@Danu A nice fact is that the origin of hyperbolic geometry was in the proof that Euclid's fifth axiom cannot be proved from the four others. Just sayin' - it's a nice example of concrete things coming from foundational logic.
 
I knew that
 
well consider the following cases x,y negative. x negative y positive, xy both negative, x zero y positive, x zero y negative xy both zero. @MaryStar
 
cool
 
3:30 PM
I don't know anything about Riemannian geometry, sadly
 
me neither
 
I saw the problem sets for last semester's course on it and it looked super cool
 
@Anubhav Nice question. There's at least one example. I suspect when the codomain is a connected sum examples are extremely easy to come by.
 
when I did it we were just doing handicapped characteristic classes
 
do you think the universe is discrete or continuous?
 
3:33 PM
I don't think that's a meaningful question yet
 
lol... disjoint union of uncountably many holy grails?
 
fair enough but it will be,
uncountably many white holes
 
I'm not sure it will be, any time soon.
 
@Danu Actually, now that I think about it, there is an easier way to understand $w_1$ than classifying vector bundles.
 
do you realize how small a transistor is
 
3:35 PM
no
How small is a transistor
 
7 atoms thick
 
@shaihorowitz The theorem is the following:

If $u$ is harmonic in $\Omega$ and $\overline{x} \in \overline{\Omega} \setminus \partial{\Omega}$ then $u(\overline{x})=\frac{n}{ w_n r^n} \int_{|\overline{x}-\overline{\xi}| \leq r} u d{\overline{\xi}}, r \in (0,d), d=dist(x, \partial{\Omega})$.

So we have $u(\overline{x})=\frac{3}{ 4 \pi \cdot 8} \int_{|\overline{x}-\overline{\xi}| \leq 4} u d{\overline{\xi}}$.

For $\overline{x}=(0,0)$ we have $u(0,0)=\frac{3}{32 \pi} \int_{|\overline{\xi}| \leq 4} u(\xi_1, \xi_2) d{\overline{\xi}}$.
 
@shaihorowitz Do you understand the issues we're facing with quantum gravity right now (I sorta do, because I'm a high energy physicist by training!)? It's tricky!
 
yeah but the trickyness makes it fun, besides i believe in quantum immortality so i got some time to figure it out
 
@BalarkaSen Tell me about it
 
3:38 PM
- $x=0, y>0$
We have $2y^2=1 \Rightarrow y=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\notin \mathbb{Q}$. So, this case is rejected.

- $x=0, y<0$
We have $2y^2=1 \Rightarrow y=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\notin \mathbb{Q}$. So, this case is rejected.

- $x=y=0$
This case is not possible, since that would mean $0=1$.

Are these cases correct?


What can we say about the cases:
- $x,y<0$
- $x<0, y>0$
- $x>0, y>0$
? @shaihorowitz
 
try examples @MaryStar the point is the squaring makes everything positive, and yeah the cases look good so far
@Evinda i'm out of my depth so i'm prone to error by the way but it looks right
 
@shaihorowitz Ok. And how do we use the fact that the given harmonic function equals to 1 at the boundary of $\Omega$ ?
 
@MaryStar forgot case y=0 x positive... trivial solutions....
 
@Danu I'll tell you the statement. $w_1(E) = 0$ implies $E/M$ is orientable, and vice versa. I don't think my easier argument is complete yet, but it's fiddling with the determinant bundle. Maybe you'd want to think about that.
 
Is $Log(z^2) = 2Log(z)$ ?
I'm guessing no
 
3:47 PM
@Lozansky yeaeh
 
@BalarkaSen
hi
 
It's not, right?
 
@Lozansky thats how logs work
it is right
 
Sorry forgot to add
$z \in \mathbb{C}$
And Log is the principal branch of log
The problem is that $2Arg(z)$ might be outside of $(-\pi, \pi]$
 
@Lozansky it seems right at least up to a complex conjugate
 
3:51 PM
Probably mod $2 \pi$ or something
 
yeah that would be my guess, or a way of defining a principle value
 
Hmm
Wait
 
Reading the wiki, it seems to be harder than that
 
@BalarkaSen I was going to read Hatcher but now I want to read Kreyszig
 
I have a counterexample
 
3:54 PM
?
 
Hi @Adeek
@0celo7 Do whatever that makes you happy
 
@BalarkaSen Well I want to reread it because you're reading about surfaces
 
Kreyszig's which book?
 
I remember he defines Gaussian curvature directly in terms of the curvature of the curves through the point
very concretely
then shows it's the determinant of the "shape operator"
 
$$z^2 = (-z)^2 \rightarrow 2Log(z) = 2Log(-z) \rightarrow Log(z) = Log(-z) \leftrightarrow z=e^{Log(z)} = e^{Log(-z)} = -z+2 \pi i k$$
 
3:56 PM
@BalarkaSen Diff geo
 
do whatever makes you happy
 
hey @BalarkaSen so I just have a quick question suppose I proved that
 
@MikeMiller Ok then I will play video games
 
gooed
 
$Aut(D_{2n}) \semieq Z_n \rtimes Aut(Z_n)$
here the above is isomorphism
I proved that
 
3:57 PM
@Adeek Don't feel like thinking about group theory today. Ask arctic maybe.
 
@arctictern here ?
 
We have the following:
$x^2=1-2y^2\Rightarrow x=\pm \sqrt{1-2y^2}$

$1-2y^2\geq 0\Rightarrow 2y^2\leq 1 \Rightarrow y^2\leq \frac{1}{2}\Rightarrow -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\leq y \leq \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$

For $x,y<0$, what rational numbers are there for example in the interval $(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},0)$ ?

@shaihorowitz
 
oke
 
@Krijn @shaihorowitz
See above
 
@arctictern I would like to determine the map $\psi$ that gives us the semi-direct product above
 
3:58 PM
@Lozansky yeah as i said up to the complex conjugate and principle value k=1 usually
 
@Adeek figure out how Z_n and Aut(Z_n) should act on D_2n by automorphisms
 
Yes but thus not true in the general case
 
@MaryStar try y=0 x=1
 
yes
I figured that out
 

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