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1:24 AM
Hi there, can someone teach me how to find where a complex is differentiable?
Here's an example f(z)=z|z|. I understand that I have to use a theorem. I'm just unsure of how to implement it.
1) C-R Equations must satisfy
2) Partial derivatives of C-R must be continuous.
How can I combine the theorem with actually finding the -points- of differentiability.
 
1:35 AM
I can't seem to find any points where the complex function f(z)=z|z| is differentiable.
 
1:46 AM
Well, what I have gathered that while the C-R equations tell us where the function is differentiable - IF the C-R equations do not exist at a specific point, then it does not necessarily mean that the function is differentiable at that point.
 
2:44 AM
@TedShifrin Le Ted.
@robjohn Le Robbie.
 
@PeterTamaroff >8(
 
@robjohn Oh, noes. I startled the square.
 
whats the process in determining where a complex function is -analytic- ?
 
A complex function is analytic at a point if it can be expressed as a power series in some small neighborhood of that point @eXtremiity
Which I believe requires that the function and all of its derivatives be well defined and continuous at that point
 
So, since I've heard other definitions - I am taking that one you have described to me, is one of them.
There's also the neighbourhood definition.
 
2:59 AM
@eXtremiity As far as I know they are equivalent
 
I'm afraid I can't see that. But I guess it's not important right now. Could you assist me with an example?
$e^z (z-\bar{z})^2$
 
@eXtremiity basically to say that $f$ is analytic at $z$ you must prove that its Taylor Series converges at $z$
 
Ok. That makes sense.
So to find where the function is analytic, I would create a taylor series and see what values of z will cause it to converge?
 
Exactly
 
I see. Is there any need to go into the Cauchy Riemann equations?
Just asking because I finished learning differentiability of a complex function.
 
3:06 AM
To determine analyticity? I don't think so
I mean strictly speaking the C-R equations must be satisfied for a function to be complex differentiable
but for something as benign as the example you posed, I don't think there is a problem
 
Yes, for the example I provided:
$e^z (z-\bar{z})^2$
It simplifies to $-y^2(e^{x+iy})$
I'll use the taylor series for the exponential function, and I'll get something nice (relatively).
$-y^2(e^{z})$
Now the trouble I'm having is seeing where the taylor series will converge for its complex nature.
 
So z and y are not independent
you can't carry the derivative through y
 
What do you mean by your second line?
You can't carry...
 
I dean that $\frac{d y^2 e^z}{d z} \neq y^2 \frac{d e^z}{d z}$
After looking at the example, because it involves complex conjugation I think it actually is easier to use the CR equations here
Complex conjugation is tricky, you don't want to assume that it is differentiable
 
I found that it is differentiable where y=0.
using CR equations.
 
3:19 AM
Did you check that BOTH the CR equations are true simultaneously?
oh yes I see
 
Yes I did. Are you suggesting that I did something wrong?
 
I think that is the only correct answer yes
 
Yeh, I'm sure I did.
 
for a moment I thought there were more points, but I checked carefully and I was wrong
 
Oh, and the answers say so too. So we don't have to worry :) .
Just the analytic part. Yeh, I know where you're coming from. The sin and cos made me believe that there'd be more points. But they can't both hold simultaneously, so y=0 is the only solution (given that you've seen the CR equations).
 
3:20 AM
So surprise surprise, the function is differentiable only on the real line
 
Yup!
 
and you know what the offending part is because $e^z$ is entire, ie analytic everywhere
so its the other part that is preventing the function from being differentiable
 
e^z is hanging around with the wrong functions.
 
accesory after the fact, he might get probation
 
Haha xD
So where were we?
Yes, so by CR we know the function is differentiable at y=0 -> only on the real line. How do we relate that to where the function is analytic?
 
3:24 AM
Well if the function is differentiable
at y=0
Then if you plug in y=0
you get a function that is 0 everywhere in x
 
independent of x. yep.
 
Indeed, and the 0 function is a perfectly good Taylor series
so the function is analytic everywhere on the real line
 
Hm, well the answers say that it's analytic nowhere. But the answers, have been wrong the last few questions .
 
AH no actually I made a mistake
the book is right here
You need a stronger condition for the Taylor Series to converge than that the CR equaitons are satisfied at the point
 
@anon Dawg.
 
3:29 AM
You need that the function is complex differentiable in a neighborhood of the point
and in this case this is not true, the function only satisfies CR equations on the real line
but if you pick any point on the real line, no matter how small a circle you draw around it you will always be including point where the CR equations are violated, so the function is not holomorphic on the real line
errr analytic I mean
 
Could you perhaps pictorially describe to me :
"You need that the function is complex differentiable in a neighborhood of the point"
Because, whenever I hear someone say it - I think of a ball with a line (the function) going through it.
And that all parts of the line -inside- the ball have to be differentiable. Am I right =/ ?
 
What it means is that you pick some point $z_0$
a neighborhood of $z_0$ is just a little circle in the complex plane with its center at $z_0$ and then you make the radius of the circle arbitrarily small
 
@eXtremiity A function is said to be analytic in an open subset $S$ of $\Bbb C$ if it admits a derivative there. Apparently one can prove that this derivative, if it exists, must be continuous. Quite dopey.
 
Hmmm ok.
 
@eXtremiity The graph of the function is 4-dimensional. But you can graph only the real part or the imaginary part as a surface in 3-D space.
 
3:34 AM
I don't think you can think of a complex function as a curve though. A complex function has a complex value everywhere in the plane.
 
@KevinDriscoll . I think I get it :) .
 
What Karl said.
 
Oh I see.
So we can't create a epsilon disk small enough so that all the points inside the disk are differentiable.
 
Right, exactly
 
Ahh, I get it. Makes sense.
So thats for "this" type of question.
How would I -approach- other questions?
Taylor series still a good method?
 
3:36 AM
If you are confident that the Taylor series exists then you can jump straight to finding the Taylor series
but if you are unsure how to take the Taylor series or if the function is differentiable anywhere, best to check the CR equations first
 
So something else I can take from this.....is that if a function is only differentiable on a particular line on the complex plane - in it's never going to be analytic ?
 
So, for something like $\frac{\sin(z)}{z-i}$, I know that polynomials and the sine are well-defined in terms of their taylor series in the complex plane so I'd just straight to looking at the series.
 
I see.
 
Yes, thats correcy
correct*
 
Excellent. Well @KevinDriscoll , I can't thank you enough for your patience mate
I'm going to have a break now - I've passed my 1 hour study sesh, need to have a break so I can recharge and get back to it.
Thanks again man !
 
3:40 AM
No problem. I am relearning all my complex analysis myself right now
 
Awesome . :]
 
3:52 AM
@eXtremiity One can give the following insight. By the Cauchy Riemann equations, we know that $$Df(z_0)=\begin{pmatrix} D_1f_1(z_0)&D_2f_1(z_0)\\-D_2f_1(z_0)&D_1f_1(z_0)\end{pmatrix}$$ so $Df(z_0)$ is multiplcation by $f'(z_0)$.
A complex function is analytic when it locally simply rotates and expands the space, namely by a factor of $|f'(z_0)|$ and an angle of $\arg f'(z_0)$.
@eXtremiity You can probably enjoy Needham's Visual Complex Analysis.
 
4:11 AM
:)
 
@PeterTamaroff Do you know what we can say about the difference between the Riemann integral of $f(x)$ and the Riemann integral of $\Sigma f_n(x)$ where the $f_n$ converge to $f(x)$ except at a single point?
 
@KevinDriscoll Converge how? Pointwise? Uniformly?
 
Oh right
umm let me look up the difference
 
I can tell you the difference.
You needn't look it up.
@KevinDriscoll
 
I just read the wiki page
 
4:15 AM
OK.
The thing is this.
If $f_n\to f$ poinwisely, there is no certainty that $\int_I \lim f_n=\lim \int_I f_n$
 
Okay
I suspect the convergence is pointwise, but am not positive
 
Well, details?
 
I was specifically interested in the asymptotic series expansion of $\text{sech}(x)$ for large $x$
ie $$\text{Sech}(x) = 2\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} e^{(2n+1)\frac{\pi x}{2}}$$
 
@KevinDriscoll In the name of all that's holy, how is that convergent?
 
Hi @unknown now that you can chat, you don't have to be unknown :D
 
4:20 AM
Also, use \sum, not \sigma.
As in $$\sum_{n\geqslant 0}$$
 
uuuuuuum, I believe that it converges everywhere except $x=0$
Ah its lowercase 's' I kept trying '\Sum' and it wouldnt work
I mean for positive x of course
OH TYPO
 
You're missing a minus sign, if I had to guess.
 
Bingo @KarlKronenfeld
 
I find it more aesthetically pleasing to write it as $$2\cdot \sum_{n\geqslant 0}\exp\left(-\left(n+\frac 1 2\right)\pi x\right)$$
And what is it that you want?
 
Indeed. But is it uniformly convergent?
 
4:25 AM
@KevinDriscoll Yes. We can dominate it by a convergent sum, methinks.
Wait, what is "Sech" here?
 
The multiplicative inverse of "Cosh"
 
But you have $\pi x$.
 
Oh I am stupid, please excuse my carelessness
 
Also, I think you want an alternating sum.
But to make it short, you can integrate this termwise, yes.
 
$$\text{Sech}(\frac{\pi}{2} x) =2 \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n e^{-(n+\frac{1}{2})\pi x}$$
 
4:31 AM
@KevinDriscoll Yes, that looks good now.
 
I apologize it has been a long day
 
@KevinDriscoll No need to do that.
 
But yes, term by term integration doesn't seem to be a problem
 
Ah right of course
 
4:34 AM
@KevinDriscoll If I were you, I'd stick to Lebesgue integration.
 
Hi! @PSTikZ long time no see?
 
Heh. I wish I could but I don't know anything about Lebesgue integration. I know its 'nicer' but physicists never teach it
 
@skullpatrol hi baby :-)
 
@PeterTamaroff
 
@KevinDriscoll There is a theorem that says that if $g_n\geqslant 0$ on $I$; $\sum_{n\geqslant 0}g_n$ converges (pointwisely) a.e. on $I$ to some function bounded above by a Lebesgue integrable function then $$\sum_{n \geqslant 0}\int_I g_n$$ converges and $$\int_I \sum_{n\geqslant 0} g_n=\sum_{n\geqslant 0} \int_I g_n$$
 
4:37 AM
@PSTikZ How are you honey?
 
@KevinDriscoll You can always read about it.
 
AH okay, is this the dominated convergence theorem? @PeterTamaroff
 
@skullpatrol You two, get a room.
 
@skullpatrol Fine, well-balanced. And you honey?
 
@KevinDriscoll Nope, this is kind of a corollary to DCT.
 
4:38 AM
@PSTikZ Fine thanks sweetie ;-)
 
@skullpatrol :-)
 
I have read about it briefly but honestly I lack the background to understand it. I don't speak the language of pure mathematics. @PeterTamaroff
 
@KevinDriscoll Recall DCT is $f_n$ converges a.e. on $I$ to some $f$ and $|f_n|\leq g$ for some Lebesgue integrable $g$ on $I$, then the sequence $\int_I f_n$ converges and $\int_I f=\lim \int_I f_n$.
@KevinDriscoll Hmm. There is a measure theoretic free approach in Apostol's book. I am thinking you can read that. Dunno if people like it or not.
 
@PeterTamaroff Might be worth looking at, But yes the measure theory business I just can't parse yet. I understand what $dx$ is physically. $d\mu$ I have no idea
Sadly, it seems that to compute what I am looking for I would have to take the inverse of this sequence, multiply it by another function and integrate. I was hoping that because the sequence is simple this operation might generate an integral with a known result. This seems to not be the case though; the integral is not known by Mathematica/
I actually should have guessed this. Based on the structure of what I was doing there is no way to integrate 'term by term' because the sequence is in the denominator. "DOH!"
 
@KevinDriscoll The inverse of what?
 
4:45 AM
Sorry by inverse of the sequence I mean just 1 over the asymptotic series
But I learned something about pointwise vs uniform convergence so a net positive I'll say
 
@KevinDriscoll Err, but why not just work with $\cosh x$? :confus:
 
Yo @GustavoBandeira wazzup?
 
@PeterTamaroff In what I am looking at the expression is $1 - \frac{1}{s \text{Cosh}(\pi \frac{x}{2})}$ which I then have to reciprocate to put on the other side of an equation and integrate
 
@skullpatrol Hello!
@skullpatrol Not much.
 
@KevinDriscoll Use \cosh
 
4:48 AM
I don't know why I though writing out the asymptotic series would be simpler
in hindsight it seems silly
 
@skullpatrol You?
 
@GustavoBandeira Chillin' like a villain.
 
@KevinDriscoll Ah, OK. You have to invert that in a nbhd of $0$? That is nasty business.
Oh, wait.
You cannot invert that in a nbhd of $0$.
 
@PeterTamaroff AH sorry me being silly again, should be Sinh and not Cosh
 
That blows up at the origin. OK.
And $s$ is a free variable?
 
4:51 AM
@PeterTamaroff Indeed it does. Yes.
 
@KevinDriscoll Well, I can give you this.
 
@PeterTamaroff You can see the integral equation I have been trying to gain some analytical understanding of the solution of since April near the bottom here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/346924/…
 
You can "just" write $$\frac{1}{{1 - \frac{s}{{\sinh x}}}} = 1 + \frac{s}{{\sinh x}} + \frac{{{s^2}}}{{{{\sinh }^2}x}} + \cdots $$
@KevinDriscoll That beats the crap out of me.
I have to sleep now. Ugh. Meh brainz are too tired.
 
@PeterTamaroff yes, I don't expect anyone knows how ot solve it. Too complicated.
@PeterTamaroff That would converge for small s, yes?
 
@KevinDriscoll If $x$ is fixed, for $|s|<|\sinh x|$.
 
4:56 AM
@PeterTamaroff Makes sense, thanks for your time. Have a good rest
 
Is $$f(s) = \frac{1}{{a\beta }}\int_{ - \infty }^\infty f (s')\frac{{s\sinh \frac{{\pi s}}{2}}}{{s\sinh \frac{{\pi s}}{2} - 1}}\frac{1}{{\cosh \frac{{\pi s'}}{2}}}ds',$$ supposed to read
$$f(s) = \frac{1}{{a\beta }}\int_{ - \infty }^\infty f (s')\frac{{s\sinh \frac{{\pi s'}}{2}}}{{s\sinh \frac{{\pi s'}}{2} - 1}}\frac{1}{{\cosh \frac{{\pi s'}}{2}}}ds',$$
Ah, no.
OK.
 
No, it is correct as written.
 
Misread.
The why don't you pull that out the integral?
 
I could. I did not in this writing because the form I have it in is 'canonical' for the field
 
5:09 AM
@KevinDriscoll Ah. Now I go.
 
Oops sorry
 
@skullpatrol I believe he has done that. Moreover, I think it is the content of the last link he posted.
 
maybe Physics.SE?
 
Precisely. @KarlKronenfeld @skullpatrol From my reading and discussions since then I gather that this is (1) In the general case not a tractable problem and (2) The form of integral equation that I posted where the poles are not 'on the diagonal' (in this case when s=s') is non-standard.
@skullpatrol I've thought about it, but I don't think they would be very helpful. Most physicists don't deal with integral equations.
It is just a mess. None of the standard approaches work.
I suppose that is why it is a research-level problem and not in a textbook :-P
 
Put it away for awhile and come back to it later...
...maybe MathOverflow.SE
 
5:20 AM
@skullpatrol I have a numerical solution and a paper forthcoming (if my advisor decides to finish it). I have considered MathOverflow but I don't know that they are interested in such problems that are really more Mathematical Physics
 
@robjohn impressive that work! It's really in my line! I especially enjoyed the first part where I tried to use integrals and I gave up. :-)
 
@KevinDriscoll Well, the question has been here for five months without even one comment :-(
 
That's true @skullpatrol. I suspect this is because no one knows anything about it. But it could also be it is uninteresting or poorly asked.
 
@KevinDriscoll Not even one comment in five months says, to me, move it to MathOverflow :-)
At least you may get a comment...
...you literally have nothing to lose.
:-)
@KevinDriscoll You could start a bounty?
 
5:42 AM
@skullpatrol My precious reputation! I have so little.....
but thanks for your advice
I am considering posting to MathOverflow
Right now though I am getting help from a couple of people in person
I don't have time right now to act on outside suggestions, but maybe in thefuture
 
5:56 AM
@robjohn btw, your proof above needs no connection to Riemann sums anymore.
 
 
1 hour later…
7:00 AM
I know, it doesn't. It boiled down to the asymptotic
$$
\sum_{k=2}^n\frac1{\log(k)}\sim\frac{n}{\log(n)}\left(1+\frac1{\log(n)}+\frac2{\log(n)^2}+\frac6{\log(n)^3}+\dots\right)
$$
 
@robjohn right. Very clever that approach.
@robjohn actually if I remember well, the first limit you computed was given to some university exams (entrance exams).
@robjohn supposing the general term inside the brackets is $k!/\log(n)^k$
 
@Chris'ssis Indeed
 
So, if a teacher writes $\frac{1}{0!}$ he's not trying to say never divide by zero :-)
 
7:30 AM
@skullpatrol That would be $\frac10!$
@Jasper: is your blue lighter?
 
user87637
@robjohn Yes, it is.
 
@robjohn Agreed.
 
@Jasper I thought so.
 
user87637
@robjohn I changed it from steelblue to dodgerblue.
 
@Jasper baseball fan?
 
user87637
7:34 AM
@robjohn Nope, though I know dodger has something to do with some team.
 
@Jasper It's the Los Angeles team.
 
user87637
@robjohn Ah, this is a sign that I should apply to UCLA, LOL.
 
@robjohn ...one of?
 
@Jasper Indeed. I had thought that that might be the reason for the change.
@skullpatrol The baseball team
 
@robjohn yes...
@robjohn Is Anaheim a separate city?
 
7:46 AM
@skullpatrol It is in another county (Orange County)
 
@robjohn Thanks, I forgot.
 
Does the weierstraß function maps nullsets to nullsets ?
 
 
1 hour later…
9:03 AM
Should a question be closed, if it is not a duplicate, but one of the answers for the other question answered this question too?
More details here:
in Jury Duty, 4 mins ago, by Martin Sleziak
The question Is product of two closed sets closed? was closed as a duplicate.
 
@MartinSleziak I don't think it's a bad idea, but the link at the top of the duplicate looks funny.
Maybe if one could fine-tune the system so that it links to a specific answer, it would make more sense.
 
 
1 hour later…
10:23 AM
@KarlKronenfeld If you mean because of the title of the other question, the tile was Product of two sets is closed before I've edited it.
If someone looked only on the title, it seemed more like a duplicate.
 
11:10 AM
hi guys
 
yo
@MartinSleziak That is true, but it is a clash between a very good thing (improving titles) and a questionable thing (closing as duplicate one of a pair of different questions based on provided answers).
 
@KarlKronenfeld The question is already reopened.
 
 
2 hours later…
1:00 PM
Assistance anyone?
 
1:23 PM
@robjohn For some reason I have to wait 10 hours to give you a bounty. I will try not to forget
 
hi :)
 
hey skullpatrol hw r u
 
f t u?
@IvanMatala Fine thanks. How are you?
 
hi guys , you want me to put a challenge
??
 
1:32 PM
im fine too :)
ok heres the challenge
assuming we have this: puu.sh/4eHBW.png
where does the '-k' come from puu.sh/4eHET.png
'negative k'
@skullpatrol do you know explanation where -k comes from???
 
note that in the integral : $$ k \to - k $$
@IvanMatala
Is $$ x(t) $$ is even ??
 
um,,, its not given
no information regarding its evenness or oddness
@what'sup you have any idea how did 1 become 2? puu.sh/4eHYG.png
 
Just ask the question or just wait @robjohn @PeterTamaroff

Because i'm busy now
sorry :-)
 
sure..
@PeterTamaroff @robjohn
 
1:54 PM
0
Q: How does this shell hit the aircraft?

ShuklaSannidhya A fighter aircraft is flying horizontally at an altitude of 1500m with speed of 200m/s. The aircraft passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. The muzzle speed of the gun is 600m/s. We are required to find the angle to the hor at which the gun should fire the shell to hit the...

Is this question more suitable on Math SE?
 
@ShuklaSannidhya What book did you find it in?
 
@skullpatrol Why does that matter? [Anyways, it was in my school textbook]...
 
@IvanMatala That is called Fourier Inversion
 
@ShuklaSannidhya Which subject?
 
@skullpatrol Physics
 
1:59 PM
@ShuklaSannidhya It looks more like a problem from a math book that one from a physics book. I guess it could be in a beginning physics book talking about acceleration, etc.
 
You just answered your own question :-)
 
@ShuklaSannidhya However, most physicists should be able to solve it :-)
 
@ShuklaSannidhya Context always matters.
 
I am off to UCLA to proctor an exam. BBL
 
later
 
2:17 PM
I've realised that in the unanswered section there are a lot of new users asking questions and then never coming back to them.
 
It's called "just give me the answer" >8(
 
@skullpatrol hahaha
 
user87637
2:53 PM
I have started a new blog, though I won't be writing much.
 
user87637
Hmm, the kids are all out partying on Friday...
 
sure jasper mind sharing it
 
user87637
@IvanMatala Oh, it's linked from my profile.
 
btw, how did a become b? puu.sh/4eKEc.png
 
user87637
Ah, you should ask an expert. I am only a banana...
 
3:03 PM
@Jasper Hello, Jasper!
 
user87637
@GustavoBandeira Oh hi.
 
@Jasper How are you?
 
@IvanMatala linearity; $\int\int A(\tau)B(t,\tau)d\tau dt=\int A(\tau)\int B(t,\tau)dtd\tau$ (if we don't use physics notation of putting dx before the integrand)
 
3:41 PM
Is it possible to find the difference between the x-component of two vector if we have the angle between them and their y-components (The y-component of both the vector are equal to a known constant, but the x-components are unknown).
 
3:52 PM
make two lines given by the given y-coordinates. for every point on one line, there is another point on the second line that makes the given angle with the first point.
 
@skullpatrol Thanks for the bounty on my question.
 
@KevinDriscoll No problem pal :)
 
@skullpatrol I have actually done quite a lot of things in the months since I asked this question. Is it acceptable that I add more information to my already long question? I'm worried no one will read it if its too long, but they may suggest something that I already know doesn't work if I don't add things.
 
@KevinDriscoll Sure, it can't hurt to add more context.
 
4:09 PM
This looks yummy.
 
4:38 PM
Hi @TedShifrin how are you?
 
hi, skull ... doing ok, thanks, and you?
 
Fine thanks :-)
 
Learn anything good today?
 
some programming in BASIC
 
yikes ... who does BASIC anymore? :)
 
4:41 PM
@skullpatrol Why basic?
 
because i'm just a banana
:D
 
Maybe you should be a mango ? :)
 
yes, they are sweeter, but they have a pit
 
@skullpatrol A Brad Pitt?
 
LOL ... so many directions to go ...
 
4:44 PM
indeed
 
I'll see you later, guys. Take care, skull. :)
 
later pal
thanks for dropping by
 
 
2 hours later…
6:19 PM
Anyone have a copy of Gradshteyn and Ryzhik that I can check against? I think mine has an error in it.
 
user87637
6:45 PM
@KevinDriscoll Nope, but what book is that?
 
Table of Integrals, Series, and Products 7th edition. Its one of the classic table of integrals
so nothing interesting
@jasper
 
user87637
Well, everything is interesting, lol.
 
Except essays about statistics
 
@Alizter WHAT!? Theres a famous Econ paper called 'A Market for Lemons' that is essentially an essay about statistics and its quite good
 
user87637
Well, statistics can be interesting too, lol.
 
6:47 PM
Writing a statistics paper about asking people what their favorite angle is is not exciting.
I like the mathematics in statistics.
But the social elements I dislike very much.
Why do people like samples better than censi? Ermm preference?
 
user87637
Statistics at the higher levels can be very mathematical.
 
user87637
But at the lower levels, it is quite boring.
 
user87637
@Alizter Never even saw censi before, lol.
 
@Jasper Censi sounds cooler than Censuses
 
user87637
@Alizter Sounds like sensei, lol.
 
6:51 PM
@Jasper Oh dear is that something rude?
 
user87637
@Alizter No, it means teacher in Japanese I think...
 
user87637
@Alizter Is it still true that you can't apply to both Cam and Ox in the same year?
 
@Jasper No idea i can't apply for another 2 years anyway
 
user87637
@Alizter I have a feeling that is true, hmmm... Anyway if you can't get in Cam or Ox, go for Imperial and Warwick like I said...
 
Imperial is difficult because of being in london
but im taking note of warwick
 
6:54 PM
@ALizter are you in the UK?
 
@KevinDriscoll I'm checking... YEP. Google says I am so that must be true!
 
@Alizter Haha, if Google says so....
 
user87637
@Alizter Google said I was in the US though I was not, lol.
 
user87637
Google is not always correct you know, lol.
 
Chinese Google says that there exists no other countries.
 
6:55 PM
@Alizter Do Ox-bridge use the same general system as the other universities where you apply and they give you a 'offer' in terms of the number of A-levels you get etc etc?
 
user87637
@KevinDriscoll Yes. You usually need the STEP papers too.
 
@KevinDriscoll The only difference between them and other universities is entry requirements. They are slightly more strict on who can come in
 
user87637
The STEP papers are very challenging and have an olympiad flavour.
 
user87637
You can practise past year papers I think.
 
@Jasper All they need is A*AA in A-level.
 
6:57 PM
Ah okay I find that kind of surprising. Their offers must be OUTRAGEOUSLY high or I do not understand the system
 
A levels must be valid
 
user87637
@KevinDriscoll Almost everyone who applies to Cambridge gets 4 A lol.
 
@Jasper Yes I guessed that is so
 
They pretty much say that Critical thinking isn't a real subject :P
 
user87637
I applied more than a decade ago, lol.
 
user87637
6:58 PM
I was not even offered a place in the math course.
 
user87637
I am not British.
 
So what you are saying is that Ox-bridge basically gives the same offer to all applicants and chooses who to offer to based on other criteria?
 
user87637
I might have gotten it if I were British.
 
user87637
I did get 4 A's for my A levels.
 
user87637
I also got 2 special paper distinctions.
 
6:59 PM
@Jasper It's a sad truth
 
@Jasper I imagine you applied before A* existed? Thats a new thing right?
 
user87637
@KevinDriscoll Well, I don't know how different A-levels in the UK is from A-levels outside, I am somewhere in Asia...
 
01:00 - 19:0019:00 - 23:00

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