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6:00 AM
@jay i think using quotes (") instead of apostrophes (') makes the commands expand first, then go. changing to quotes stopped the errors (I still have to see if it worked right though).
 
@Jeff Hmm. I would have thought it should work the other way! The doubles quotes being more stronger than the singe ones.
 
@jay yeah, that seems natural to me, too. the command works perfectly using quotes. apparently quotes means "expand now" and apostrophe means "expand when executed" (or something like that).
 
@JayeshBadwaik Does C has some Symbolic mathematics library?
 
@Jeff the joys of programming :P
@GustavoBandeira I highly doubt it. C is jut not a proper language to do that stuff.
 
6:07 AM
@jay yeah :D... now i'm trying to see if that's the same in the makefile, so i don't need multiple files
 
If $A,B \in \mathbb{R}$, is the following true: $\{A,B\}^+ = max\{A,B\}$ (notation question)
 
@GustavoBandeira This is there in C++. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SymbolicC%2B%2B
But I am guessing it would be too clumsy.
 
@Jay it seems like that statemen (about quote and apostrophes) is not true in makefiles, just regular bash scripts
 
Hmn, I got curious on what are the libraries of each programming languange
At least a generalization on them: "C has n set of libraries and p set of libraries, Python has some math libraries and some n libraries"
@BenjaLim That guy with the green avatar missed you.
 
@GustavoBandeira there are too many. This is one really good case where ignorance is bliss. Just explore the ones of your interests and be happy!!
But you can know about standard libraries of the language.
For example C on linux has glibc. C++ has stdlib++
@Jeff Awesome. So just call that bash script from makefile. I know ugly ugly but that's the way it is.
 
6:11 AM
@jay it looks like i'll have to do that
:(
@jay how do i display what a variable in a makefile is set to?
 
@JayeshBadwaik I'm just trying to figure out - superficialy - what projects could be developed with each programming languange.
 
@GustavoBandeira ohh okay. that is a good exercise.
@Jeff You might want to use setenv getenv commands inside the makefile
@echo $(FOO)
The command is "@echo $(FOO)"
Also for your question about display
 
@JayeshBadwaik it was the same question :D
now i'm having trouble getting thishost to be set correctly. sheesh
 
ok. i have everything working except that I can't set "thishost" to the value I want (in the makefile).
@jay looks like the best way for me to get it working is to add export thishost=$(hostname) to my .bashrc file.
(added "export")
 
6:29 AM
@Jeff Yup. So basically, your bashrc is the bash script you run everytime you start a shell.
 
@jay yeah
 
You can do the same thing by running a bash script at the beginning of your makefile.
that would be cleaner.
 
6:51 AM
 
@JayeshBadwaik probably, but i don't feel like figuring that out now (also, i already emailed the solution to my adviser).
oh, and also, i'm really really tired now. see how sleepy my eyes are: -__-
goodnight.
 
@Jeff Goodnight.
 
 
2 hours later…
8:47 AM
@robjohn Hey
are you around?
@JonasTeuwen
Can I ask you something
I have been bashing my brains out in this problem
I thought I worked it out last week
I realised my manipulations were wrong
@JonasTeuwen I am trying to get a uniform bound on $\frac{1}{2} \int_0^x (D_N(t) - 1 )dt$
@JonasTeuwen I reduced the problem to getting a uniform bound on $\frac{1}{2} \int_0^x \sin Nt \cot (t/2) dt$
But the problem is now I am trying to get a bound on this guy, I am trying to say that the integral of this is less than $\int_0^x \sin Nt /t dt$
 
Good day everybody!
 
For $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$, does $\{a,b\}^+$ define maximization or is it $(a,b)^+$?
 
9:13 AM
@BenjaLim Isn't your original integral simply this?
\begin{equation}
\int\limits_{0}^{x} \sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} cos(kt) dt
\end{equation}
If $n$ is finite, you can simply take termwise integration and then add them up which gives
\begin{equation}
\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} sin(kx)
\end{equation}
 
Is there some algorithm to plot $w = \sqrt{ P(z)}$, where $P(z)$ is some polynomial of $z \in \mathbb{C}$?
 
Calculate the points to a desired accuracy and then use bezier curves?
 
Jayesh, no, only calculate points at some grid on $z$. But correctly :)
 
I can give a correct example for $w = \sqrt{z}$. Here is an algorithm on Matlab:
phi = pi*(-2*N:2*N)/N;
R = (0:(2/N):3)';

z = R*exp(1i*phi);
w = R.^(1/2)*exp(1i*phi/2);
voila
Is there a way to generalize this on $w= \sqrt{P(z)}$? The easiest case if $P(z) = az+b$
 
9:29 AM
The expression for $w$ will not change w.r.t $P(z)$
 
For $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$, does $\{a,b\}^+$ define maximization or is it $(a,b)^+$?
 
@IssacM Sorry I do not know.
 
Thanks
 
If $P(z) = Re^{i\theta}$ then, $\sqrt{P(z)} = \sqrt{R} e^\frac{i\theta }{2}$
 
yes
but I don't know how many circles on $\theta$ I should take. Angle function will give only angle between $-\pi$ and $\pi$
 
9:32 AM
@JayeshBadwaik Yes but how is that uniformly bounded?
 
I guess you are asking of the sequence? Hmm..
Wolfram gives the sum as this
\begin{equation}
\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} \sin(kx) = \frac{\sin(nx) \sin\left(\frac{n+1}{2} x \right)}{\sin(\frac{x}{2})}
\end{equation}

which can be then simplified to
$$\cot\left(\frac{x}{2}\right) + \frac{sin\frac{3n+1}{2} x}{sin(x/2)}$$

and this is not bounded I suppose.
 
9:57 AM
@BenjaLim Sorry, I was out.
 
The easiest question: how to plot $w = \sqrt{z+1}$ ?
ah. okey. I know)
 
@Nimza Plot[Sqrt[z + 1], {z, 0, 5}] (see here)
 
@robjohn no, I plot Riemann surfaces :)
 
10:22 AM
@Nimza Oh :-)
 
I posted an example ($w = \sqrt{z}$) above. I want to generalize such algorithm
 
@Nimza So basically you want to plot $real(z) against $x,y$ where $z=x+iy$ ?
 
@JayeshBadwaik hm, why? There are no problem to do it.
the only problem is ambiguity of function $\sqrt{}$. I don't know any algorithm that constructs and glues sheets correctly for $w = \sqrt{P(z)}$
 
@Nimza ohh.
And i just noticed how ridiculous that italics looks. sorry for that.
 
:))
 
10:33 AM
I forgot a $ is suppose.
 
Ok. I'll try nearest neighbors now
 
@robjohn hi
 
 
2 hours later…
1:06 PM
@BenjaLim Hey there...
 
1:23 PM
@JohnJunior Do you even have to ask?
Well I am going for dinner now. Talk to you later.
 
later
 
1:54 PM
Cool. I was just fixing up a question posed in an answer to someone else's question and extended it to show that $$ \frac1{\sqrt{4n+1}}\le\frac{1\cdot3\cdot5\cdots(2n-1)}{2\cdot4\cdot6\cdots2n}\le\frac1{\sqrt{3n+1}} $$
The asymptotic limit is $\dfrac1{\sqrt{\pi n}}$
 
2:26 PM
@robjohn Nice :-).
 
2:44 PM
Guys, I have a load of work to do on Spivaks Ch.7. Expect me. I'm not anonymous.
@JonasTeuwen Joney.
 
@PeterTamaroff Honey.
@robjohn Would you know when the weak* topology is first countable? If and only if it is metrizable I presume... that sucks.
 
@JonasTeuwen what is weak* ?
as opposed to weak?
 
Standard usage.
 
@JayeshBadwaik Well, that one managed to be a star.
 
@PeterTamaroff I thought you had a chapter to complete.
:P
 
3:18 PM
@JohnSenior I didn't mean cope mathematically though, many others have helped me lots, too. Yet none of them is special to me. : ) But never mind.
@JonasTeuwen Hi Bro.
Haz teh hungre. See you all later.
 
3:48 PM
@JonasTeuwen I'm not sure, off hand.
I haven't seen Ilya on chat in a few days.
 
4:18 PM
For $k\ge1$,
$$
\begin{align}
12k^2-8k^2-n+1&\le12k^3-8k^2\\
(2k-1)^2(3k+1)&\le(2k)^2(3k-2)\\
\left(\frac{2k-1}{2k}\right)^2&\le\frac{3k-2}{3k+1}\\
\frac{2k-1}{2k}&\le\sqrt{\frac{3k-2}{3k+1}}\tag{1}
\end{align}
$$
and for $k\ge0$,
$$
\begin{align}
16k^3-12k^2&\le16k^3-12k^2+1\\
(4k-3)4k^2&\le(2k-1)^2(4k+1)\\
\frac{4k-3}{4k+1}&\le\left(\frac{2k-1}{2k}\right)^2\\
\sqrt{\frac{4k-3}{4k+1}}&\le\frac{2k-1}{2k}\tag{2}
\end{align}
$$
Taking products of $(1)$ and $(2)$ gives
$$
\prod_{k=1}^n\sqrt{\frac{4k-3}{4k+1}}
 
@robjohn Ilya works hard.
 
@JonasTeuwen but it doesn't mean he is not missed.
 
@robjohn Yes, but it means he has a good reason to not be here! :-).
@robjohn But you still have meeee!
I'm a pretty bad excuse for that right? 8-).
 
@JonasTeuwen I miss everyone who is gone for a while.
 
4:34 PM
@robjohn Yes, me too :-(. But I know where to find Ilya but I do not want to disturb him in deep concentration :-).
 
@JonasTeuwen I was just noticing that Ilya had flagged an answer recently
 
4:55 PM
@JonasTeuwen Duuuuuuuude.
 
What?
 
@JonasTeuwen Would you care to help me with something? Or maybe @rob ?
Suppose $f$ is such that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$. Then prove there exists a $c$ such that $f(x)=cx$ for all rational $x$.
 
Try it for natural $c$ first.
 
@PeterTamaroff It's not true unless $f$ is continuous at at least one point, sorry, i missed the rational
 
And that.
@robjohn Wait... are your sure that is also needed for rational $c$?
Oh, his $x$ is rational.
 
4:58 PM
@JonasTeuwen Yes, first I have to prove it for integers. Actually, the scheme is like this
 
@JonasTeuwen Yeah, I just added to my previous comment that I missed the rational part.
 
First, prove $$f(\sum x_i)=\sum f(x_i)$$
 
That is like yeah duh. So skip that.
 
@JonasTeuwen Hehhee yes.
Well, the second part is to prove the formula for integer $n$, then for $1/n$; $n$ integer, and then for rationals.
@robjohn You're so irrationaly minded.
 
Yes, take $n$ times $x$, then you get $f(n x) = n f(x)$.
Take $x = \frac1n$, so you get $f(1) = n f(n^{-1})$ for all $n$, so this means that...
Then go on. Bye!
 
5:17 PM
There is a crucial moment in a proof when one has to change the pen for the pencil.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I always use the pencil for own work. Better than wasting ink.
 
@WillHunting Ink forces you to be correct. I like it.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff You will find that your thinking will change soon, because you will meet many problems whose solutions you only get after trying 9000 different things.
 
@WillHunting OK. So, I alrady have this is true for all rationals of the form $1/n$
With $c=f(1)$
 
user19161
Ink is only for work to be handed up for me, and also no need to use correction fluid, a waste of time, fluid and bad for health.
 
user19161
5:21 PM
@PeterTamaroff Then the rest is trivial.
 
@WillHunting FUUUUUUUU
I can't see it.
Let me think.-
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Hint: Use f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y).
 
@WillHunting I think I got it.
@WillHunting $$f\left( {\frac{1}{m}} \right) + f\left( {\frac{1}{n}} \right) = f\left( {\frac{{m + n}}{{mn}}} \right)$$ ???
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff You are making it too complicated. You have proven it for all 1/n. Now you need to prove it for all rationals. But rationals are of the form m/n. Can you split up m/n into copies of 1/n?
 
@WillHunting Yes.
Done
=)
 
5:26 PM
Man.
What?
 
user19161
Let's all have beer.
 
@WillHunting I have a party tonight, I'll have vodka.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Very good. Also, remember to stay safe, hehe.
 
@WillHunting From what? Face-numbness?
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Er, from making babies.
2
 
5:29 PM
@WillHunting LAWL
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Always bring protection just in case!
2
 
@WillHunting I have a bigger problem than that. Suppose now that $f$ additionally satisfies $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$, and that $f$ is not identically zero. Then prove that $f(1)=1$ (easy piecy) that $f(x)=x$ for rational $x$, that $f(x)>0$ if $x>0$, that $f(x)>f(y)$ if $x>y$, that $f(x)=x$ for all $x$, knowing that given any $x,y\in \Bbb R$, there is a rational such that $x<r<y$
 
5:44 PM
@rob I have already proven $f(x)=x$ for all rationals. Now I need to prove that $f$ is positive for positive $x$; that $f$ is increasing and then that $f(x)$ is the dientity on the reals. Why do I need the previous inequalities to work the last thing out?
 
Is there any way to filter comments w.r.t. votes?
 
6:42 PM
@PeterTamaroff you mean $f(x) = cx$ for all rational $c$? Oh, wait you're on a new problem...
 
@robjohn No,no. I have alraedy proven that. I have an extra condition now, that is $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$
1 hour ago, by Peter Tamaroff
@WillHunting I have a bigger problem than that. Suppose now that $f$ additionally satisfies $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$, and that $f$ is not identically zero. Then prove that $f(1)=1$ (easy piecy) that $f(x)=x$ for rational $x$, that $f(x)>0$ if $x>0$, that $f(x)>f(y)$ if $x>y$, that $f(x)=x$ for all $x$, knowing that given any $x,y\in \Bbb R$, there is a rational such that $x<r<y$
 
yeah, I was away and just noticed that. I was just going from my inbox and not looking back :-)
@PeterTamaroff So you are now assuming that $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ and $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$?
Sorry, I have to go again. BBL.
 
@robjohn Oh noes.
 
I played the part of a wisecrack so well tday
Some users seem to frequent this place. I can hardly see new ones.
@BrianM.Scott, hello
I was wondering what become of Reid Barton(I am more interested in finding his papers).Any idea where I could at least have a look(I do not claim to understand his papers)?
 
6:57 PM
Hullo. Don’t expect much: I’m not really awake yet!
 
@BrianM.Scott, got it at last.I am not sure I understand it.So, no need to take th trouble.Though i am still curious about Reid does nowadays.
 
@Steenrod No idea, I’m afraid; I don’t even recognize the name.
 
@BrianM.Scott,en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reid_W._Barton He is a legend in Olympiad folklore.
 
He seems to be active on MathOverflow.
 
He was active
 
7:12 PM
He was apparently there today.
 
@BrianM.Scott, good day and bye.
 
Hello
@BrianM.Scott Hello
 
I’m still here.
 
@Gustavo: I mean that once we've fixed the definition of a polynomial, we don't get to consider a function as being a polynomial or not. It either is or it isn't. — Qiaochu Yuan 29 mins ago
 
@BrianM.Scott Good!
 
7:17 PM
What does Qiaochu wants to tell me with this?
 
@BrianM.Scott I'm working on $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$
2 hours ago, by Peter Tamaroff
@WillHunting I have a bigger problem than that. Suppose now that $f$ additionally satisfies $f(x)f(y)=f(xy)$, and that $f$ is not identically zero. Then prove that $f(1)=1$ (easy piecy) that $f(x)=x$ for rational $x$, that $f(x)>0$ if $x>0$, that $f(x)>f(y)$ if $x>y$, that $f(x)=x$ for all $x$, knowing that given any $x,y\in \Bbb R$, there is a rational such that $x<r<y$
2 hours ago, by Peter Tamaroff
@rob I have already proven $f(x)=x$ for all rationals. Now I need to prove that $f$ is positive for positive $x$; that $f$ is increasing and then that $f(x)$ is the dientity on the reals. Why do I need the previous inequalities to work the last thing out?
 
I'm seeing it kinda as: Once you learn what a car is, you don't need to think if it's a car or if it isn't, It either is or isn't
 
@GustavoBandeira You wrote that Barbeau ‘considers’ two functions to be polynomials. Qiaochu was pointing out that consders is the wrong word: they are polynomials. Considers implies that it’s a matter of opinion, and it isn’t.
 
@BrianM.Scott Oh, ok. I didn't think "consider" would express a matter of opinion.
 
Good evening
 
7:21 PM
@PeterTamaroff Which inequalities are you calling the previous inequalities?
@JohnSenior Evening!
 
@BrianM.Scott $f(x)>0\iff x>0$ and $f(x)>f(y)\iff x>y$
The scond follows from the first right, by putting $f(x-y)>0\iff x-y>0$
 
Yes. And you need them to show that $f(x)=x$ for irrational $x$.
 
@BrianM.Scott OK. But that is supposed to be proven forall $x$
That is, $f(x)>0$ for all $x$.
I only have my formula is true for rationals.
That is, $f(x)=x$ for rational $x$.
 
What exactly are your hypotheses on $f$. It’s additive and multiplicative and not identically $0$; anything else?
 
@BrianM.Scott Yes, that is all.
 
7:31 PM
@PeterTamaroff Okay; I’ll have to think about it for a bit.
 
@BrianM.Scott OK. I'll have to go "work" for a while. Maybe I'll just post it as a question
 
Hang on a minute.
Suppose that $x>0$. Then $x=y^2$ for some $y$. But $f(x)=f(y^2)=f(y)^2\ge 0$.
That’s not quite there, since we still have $\ge$ instead of $>$, but it’s a start.
 
@PeterTamaroff What are you aiming to prove?
(ignore me - I think I found it)
 
@JohnSenior That if $f:\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$ satisfies $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ and $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ for all $x,y\in\Bbb R$ and is not identically $0$, it’s the identity function.
 
@BrianM.Scott But if $x^2>0$ whenever $x\neq 0$; yes? Maybe we need to consider the fact that $f\not \equiv 0$.
 
7:37 PM
so presumably the multiplicative property is going to allow us to rule out the nasty discontinuous functions that satisfy the rest of the conditions
 
Hi all :)
 
@PeterTamaroff If $x\ne0$ and $f(x)=0$, then $f(xy)=0$ for all $y$, so $f\equiv0$. This gives you $f(x)>0$ for $x>0$. And since $x+(-x)=0$, it gives you $f(x)<0$ for $x<0$.
 
@BrianM.Scott Come again?
Are we still using the $x=y^2$ hypothesis?
 
I’d already shown that if $x>0$, then $f(x)\ge 0$. But $f(x)$ can’t be $0$, because if it were, I could write any real number in the form $xy$ for some $y$ and get $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)=0$, maiking $f$ identically $0$.
 
@BrianM.Scott Yes, I see now =D
 
7:41 PM
Thus, $x>0$ implies $f(x)>0$. And then I can use $x+(-x)=0$ to get $f(x)<0$ when $x<0$.
 
@BrianM.Scott Yes. Now $f(x)>f(y)$ when $x>y$ follows from that, right?
I have 3 minutes to go =P
 
Yes: if $x>y$, then $f(x)=f(y)+f(x-y)>f(y)$.
 
@PeterTamaroff plenty of time - almost finished :)
 
Now that you know that $f$ is strictly monotone increasing, you can easily use the density of the rationals in the reals to ‘trap’ each irrational and get that $f(x)=x$.
 
Is the result now established for all rationals
 
7:44 PM
@JohnSenior Yes, Peter already did that.
 
Great!
 
@BrianM.Scott Enlight me, but just a little!
When I return, I'll try and solve it.
 
@PeterTamaroff About the trapping?
 
Is it better to learn C or Matlab if I want a job related to mathematics?
 
@BrianM.Scott Yes. I know that for any $x<y$ there is a rational such that $x<r<y$. I have formally proven that!
I'm off, peoples of the math.
 
7:47 PM
Bye Peter
 
@JaakkoSeppälä Do you know BASIC?
 
Let $x$ be irrational. For each $n\in\Bbb N$ pick rationals $p_n\in(x-2^{-n},x)$ and $q_n\in(x,x+2^{-n})$. Then $f(p_n)<f(x)<f(q_n)$. From there you should be able to finish it off.
 
@JohnJunior Yes. And Java too.
 
@JaakkoSeppälä How about FORTRAN?
 
@JohnJunior Nope.
 
7:51 PM
Fortran (previously FORTRAN) is a general-purpose, imperative programming language that is especially suited to numeric computation and scientific computing. Originally developed by IBM at their campus in south San Jose, California in the 1950s for scientific and engineering applications, Fortran came to dominate this area of programming early on and has been in continual use for over half a century in computationally intensive areas such as numerical weather prediction, finite element analysis, computational fluid dynamics, computational physics and computational chemistry. It is one of ...
 
Anyone know a bit of measure theory icm with their convergence theorems and nets?
 
@JonasTeuwen don't think my rusty measure theory is likely to help - sorry :((((
 
@JohnSenior Just wondering if Fatou's lemma works for nets if every integral makes sense :-).
Actually, life is quite okay when you only talk to people you can shut off!
 
@BrianM.Scott Would you be interested in a question relating Math to English?
 
@JonasTeuwen you have found an on/off switch for people? - I want one!
 
8:05 PM
@JohnSenior Only online.
 
@JonasTeuwen drat :)
 
@PeterTamaroff back :-)
 
Attention is sort of an on/off switch...
@robjohn Would you be interested in a question relating Math to English?
 
@JohnJunior My only real comment is that I’ve not heard it called an equal sign.
 
@JohnJunior Cool Elf's answer looks good.
 
8:16 PM
@JohnJunior Hmm. There's only two open Fortran positions in Finland but both requires a Ph.D education so I won't get them.
 
Thanks for having a look. @BrianM.Scott @robjohn :)
 
@BrianM.Scott you've never heard = being called and "equal sign"? I've heard "equal sign" and "equals sign". The "s" after the "equal" gets hidden by the "s" at the beginning of the "sign"
@JaakkoSeppälä I would think that the PhD of anyone who still programs in Fortran would be so old as to be almost obsolete.
 
@robjohn I’ve heard equals sign pronounced rapidly and carelessly enough that the two sibilants blend, but I interpret that as equals sign, not as equal sign. The latter has a hiatus that the former lacks even when run together.
 
Does anybody call it the "sign for is."?
 
@BrianM.Scott If you enunciate "equals sign" clearly enough. Usually I say "equal sign" although I guess that could mean "the same sign".
 
8:25 PM
@robjohn For me there’s a very clear distinction between the two even in rapid speech. Even if the /z/ of equals loses its voicing, the resulting /s/ is longer in equals sign than in equal sign. Moreover, the latter has a slight break between the /l/ and the /s/.
 
Some people claim I sometimes speak so fast they cannot follow 8-).
 
Saturday night does not appear to be the best time to ask questions on SE.
I can't think of anything better to do on a Saturday night than sitting at home on a comfy sofa and thinking about stuff though.
@BrianM.Scott I got your ping and I will read your helpful comment regarding that teddy answer. But right now I have lots of homotopy stuff in my cache and I'd rather not swap that right now.
Thanks a lot for the comment though.
 
@Matt That’s fine; it’ll keep.
 
I hope it will : )
@BrianM.Scott Are you "back"?
I thought you'd left chat.
 
@Matt For a while I was too busy answering questions and cycling to spend any time here.
 
8:38 PM
: )
 
I also go through occasional asocial period $-$ not antisocial, but asocial.
 
Matt has coined this chat room as "the black hole of productivity..."
 
@JonasTeuwen I don't follow.
 
@robjohn Nice.
@Matt Drink beer.
 
@JonasTeuwen Boring.
 
8:41 PM
@Matt Yeah, looking at an empty site isn't?
 
@JohnJunior Does productivity distribute over summativity?
 
@JonasTeuwen I'm looking at the cats. This tab is just in my view, by coincidence.
 
@Matt Mmm... extra beer?
 
@robjohn I believe so.
According to the distributive property.
Also with respect to subtraction :-D
subtractativity?
Is that too much activity??
 
@robjohn I don’t know, but uglification distributes over ambition and distraction.
 
8:52 PM
Actually, I do indeed fancy a cold beer.
 
@BrianM.Scott Therefore does beautification distribute over contemplation and concentration?
 
@anon but what IS MH's game?
 
@anon Until I looked, I expected to see an unnecessary edit!
 
MH is known for humorously trivial pedanticisms.
 

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