08:44
1
My question is the following: if I know $f''(x)<0,~\forall~0\leq x\leq a$ and I know that $f'(c)=0$ where $c\in[0,a]$ and I also know $f(0)=0$, then is that true $f(x)>0,~\forall~x\in(0,c]$? I think it is correct.
Has the tag concavity been removed recently? Isn't it more usual on MO that tags are replaced by tag-removed rather than untagged (as mentioned here and here)?
2 hours later…
11:01
So it seems quite plausible that the tag was removed by the tag-pruning process, which removes single occurrence tags. (I have recently asked on another meta: Is it possible to find out whether a tag has been removed by an automated process?)
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