@Soldarnal I recall being entertained by the opportunity to incorporate a p value into a BH answer, but it's not exactly one of the more exegetically memorable answers on the site. Still, it seems to be a question people have. Repeatedly. Which prompted me to Google it, which didn't bring up any of the BH Q&As but yielded a few other hypotheses. (None of which I found very convincing. But I'm a simple syntax sort of person.)
I guess the question about word order variation must be something difficult for search engines to process appropriately?
Usually we manage to get the BH Q&As at least in the first couple pages of Google hits I think. Or that was what I think I remember from doing those old site eval things anyway.
@Dɑvïd I always wondered if there was something about the x shape, which seems arbitrary but appears to be preserved in our own time/language as the default "mark". One of them anyway. (I was a little disappointed that your "literal" translation wasn't, "taw a taw on the foreheads...", but I'm perpetually amused by cognate accusatives to a degree that is probably not normal.)
@all This one is quickly accumulating answers but has 4 close votes:
Can you explain the meaning of the phrase with example and expound on what kind of idiom it is? Here are few main examples of being "dead in sins"
(Ephesians 2:1 ESV) And you were dead in the trespasses and sins
(Luke 15:20-24 ESV) 20 And he arose and came to his father. But while
he...
Original post: http://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/55171/niv-vs-nrsv-which-version-is-more-accurate-of-a-translation
I grew up with the NRSV, but in my college bible class, we use the NIV. From what I can tell, the NIV uses simpler language compared to the NRSV. Which one is more of ...
@Dɑvïd More primarily opinion based than anything, IMO (whose definition of "accurate"?), or maybe too broad (there are only a few thousand differences that could be addressed), but since there's something to close it as a dupe of, that makes sense.
@Dɑvïd What are the hyphen-looking things representing in "bə-ṯōḵ hå̄-ʿīr"?
There are a bunch of them, actually. Are they just dividing syllables? (Also, not sure what the doodle is on the vowel in kå̄l, but probably that one needs to be something different. Would fiddle with it but I obviously don't know the system.)
@Susan They're "word" boundaries -- I was in a hurry (could you tell?), so I just grabbed the EHLL transliteration from Matthew Anstey's site. (Hope that link works!)
Oh, EHLL -- link doesn't work, but from their "transcription" table: å. Is that what you see?
Though I'm confused:
> Sequences of qameṣ and ḥaṭeph qameṣ in words such as צָהֳרַיִם are transcribed thus: ṣå̄hå̆rayim.
Is that word not pronounced with two o's? We talked about this rule at some point, and I'm pretty confident that's how Shmuelof says it (though can't confirm just now). Maybe I should become Suså̆n.
Oh, apparently a diachronic thing -- from that same page, "modern Hebrew": צהרים ṣohorayim.
(And I did not make you do it; I merely expressed confusion. Nothing new here. Honored to have earned an initial in your markdown definitions, in any case. Feeling better about kål now too. Hope that wasn't a display issue.)