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user228700
10:00 AM
Is that detail mentioned in the link?
 
They are both huuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuge books :-(
 
user228700
Okay! I definitely don't have time to read either of them then! I'll have to resort to watching Hindi vids. like:
 
@JohnRennie Number 4: Doppler Effect - As the ambulance goes past the sirens are of shorter wavelength and hirer frequency, once the ambulance passes the sirens will have a lower wavelength, lower frequency, lower pitch ?
 
user228700
Please pray that I come out alive :P
 
10:04 AM
@CodeRatchet Looks good, with possibly a slight correction: as the ambulance moves towards you the frequency will be higher and as the ambulance moves away from you the frequency will be lower.
Though I suspect this is what you meant anyway.
 
@JohnRennie Yeah that's correct thanks
Can we tackle question 2 or 3?
2) You have filled a kettle with cold water and placed it on a gas stove to boil. Explain how heat exchange will occur in this situation.

3) Whilst being operated, one of the double insulated construction (DIC) equipment encounters a fault. Explain if the operator will suffer from shock or not
 
Q3 I can't answer because I don't know what double insulated construction (DIC) equipment is, and the question doesn't say what the fault is.
 
Ok leave that with me, question 2 would that fall into Energy Transfer?
 
Q2 seems awfully vague.
The water will get hot and eventually boil away.
So I suppose you'd say that heat from the burning gas heats the water then when the water reaches 100C the heat from the gas turns it into steam.
But it isn't clear to me if this is what the question means or not.
 
Ok so I'm starting to think question 2/3 are linked together
 
10:16 AM
@CodeRatchet it doesn't look to me as if Q2 and Q3 are linked ...
 
Ok, I think I have enough information to hopefully do some more research and give a better answer. Thanks for you help @JohnRennie appreciate it.
 
@CodeRatchet you're welcome :-)
 
user116211
10:32 AM
@JohnRennie hmm. Well, let me begin...
 
Good lunch? :-)
 
user116211
@JohnRennie Kinda... grilled veg sandwich ;)) My favourite.
 
user116211
With Heinz ;P
 
user116211
Anyways, ...
 
user116211
So, first he defines a line-element $\overline{\mathrm ds}^2$ based on kinetic energy of the system.
 
10:35 AM
OK
 
user116211
Namely $$\overline{\mathrm ds}^2 = \sum_{i\,=\,1}^Nm_i~(\mathrm dx_i^2 + \mathrm dy_i^2 + \mathrm dz_i^2)\tag{15.11}$$
 
user116211
Then he concludes that the co-ordinate system is Euclidean with coordinate axes being $\sqrt{m_ix_i}~~~ \sqrt{m_iy_i}~~~\sqrt{m_iz_i}\,.$
 
user116211
Well, I could digest that.
 
user116211
Then he transforms the variables to generalised coordinates $q_1,\ldots, q_n\,.$
 
user116211
He writes:
 
user116211
10:38 AM
> [...] the geometry remains Euclidean, although the line-element is given by the more general Riemannian form: $$ \overline{\mathrm ds}^2 = \sum_{i, \, k\,= \,1}^n g_{ik}~\mathrm dx_i\mathrm dx_k$$ with $n= 3N\,.$
 
user116211
Now, why does the geometry "remains" Euclidean? I didn't get that (since I'm not into differential geometry till yet, maybe).
 
user116211
Well, this is the part of the query but not the main one....
 
user116211
Then he considers a case of a system with given kinematical constraints.
 
I think his point is that (15.11) shows the space is flat, because we can choose global coordinates in which the space is flat everywhere.
 
user116211
10:42 AM
@JohnRennie sure, because that is Euclidean?
 
The curvature is coordinate independent, so it does not depend on the choice of coordinates.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie ohh, okay, got it!
 
user116211
@JohnRennie That's why even after transforming to the generalised ones, the geometry remains Euclidean, is it so?
 
Yes. Starting from a flat space it's possible to choose curved coordinates in which the metric doesn't look like a Euclidean metric. However the apparent curvature is due to your choice of coordinates and not a property of the space.
 
user116211
Going to the second case, he attacked the problem by firstly converting the coordinates to generalised curvilinear ones i.e. $q_1,\ldots, q_n\,.$
 
user116211
10:45 AM
@JohnRennie that's why he said, the line-element becomes general Remainnian but the geometry remains the same i.e., Euclidean...
 
> The last result and the remarks preparatory to
it have been aimed at understanding how one
might prescribe the vector z that arises in Eq.
(23) for any given practical situation. We have
found that the use of the generalized D’Alembert’s
Principle (which requires a speci5cation of the
vector C at each instant of time) yields a unique
characterization of Qc
ni, and therefore of Qc
. We
have thus obtained, within the framework of Lagrangian
dynamics, the explicit equation of motion
for systems with non-ideal constraints.
 
@MAFIA36790 for example, in the rest frame of an accelerating observer the metric is the Rindler metric and this doesn't look flat. It even has an event horizon!
 
But this is because the if we use the rest frame of an accelerating observer those coordinates are curved. Spacetime is flat.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie Then it must be that just because the coordinates are curvilinear doesn't have to mean the geometry is not Euclidean? good point.
 
user116211
10:47 AM
@JohnRennie ohh.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie This makes the thing clearer.... okay.
 
To look at the curvature you'd need to calculate the curvature invariants.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie Riemannian curvature tensor, I guess?
 
In GR they would be the Ricci scalar, Kretschmann scalar and so on. I don't know what the equivalents would be in this case, but they must exist.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie okay...
 
10:49 AM
The trouble with the Riemann tensor is that when you write it down its components will depend on the coordinate system you choose.
So it wouldn't necessarily be immediately obvious that the space is flat.
 
But isn't the riemann curvature tensor has to vanish if spacetime is flat?
 
But the curvature invariants are coordinate independent.
 
So you mean there are coordinate systems in flat spacetime where the riemann curvature tensor will not vanish?
 
user116211
@JohnRennie yes, that's the crux of the discussion, I suppose.
 
user116211
anyways, let me come to the second case....
 
user116211
10:54 AM
> [...] express from the very beginning the rectangular coordinates of the particles in terms of $n$ parameters $q_1,\ldots,q_n\,.$ these parameters are now the curvilinear coordinates of an $n$-dimensional space whose line element.... takes the form: $$\overline{\mathrm ds}^2 = \sum_{i, \, k\,= \,1}^n a_{ik}~\mathrm dq_i\mathrm dq_k\,.\tag{15.16}$$
 
user116211
> The $a_{ik}$ are here given the functions of the $q_i\,.$ The line element is now truly Riemannian not only because the $q_i$ are curvilinear coordinates, but because the geometry of the configuration space does not preserve the Euclidean structure of the original $3N$-dimensional space...
 
user116211
Notice that the line-element defined from $(15.11)$ and the one in $(15.16)$ look exactly the same.
 
user116211
They are in the general Riemannian form and defined on the generalised coordinates.
 
OK, though I must admit I'm not sure what he means by the geometry of the configuration space does not preserve the Euclidean structure of the original 3N-dimensional space
 
user116211
@JohnRennie My query!!!
 
user116211
10:57 AM
Why does the former line-element preserve the Euclidean Geometry while the latter develop geometry which does not preserve the Euclidean structure of the $3N$-dimensional space?
 
user116211
That's the point I'm not getting.
 
user116211
Why did the geometry developed from one remain Euclidean while the exact opposite thing happened in the latter case even though both used the curvilinear generalised coordinates and line-element in the general Riemanninan form and both looking exactly same?
 
user116211
@JohnRennie The former one does preserve that.... hmmm. Confusing ;/
 
Aaaaaaaaaaaaah ...
 
user116211
It spoilt my whole day; I'm stuck at this very point T__T
 
11:00 AM
Note that he says: Let us now consider a system with given kinematical conditions between the coordinates
 
user116211
@JohnRennie yes?
 
user116211
Degrees of freedom is not same in both the cases, I know that.
 
Does that mean the particles can interact with each other i.e. exchange momentum?
 
user116211
@JohnRennie He didn't say such thing.
 
I guess I just don't understand the terminology because I don't know what given kinematical conditions between the coordinates means.
 
user116211
11:02 AM
@JohnRennie He only says this:
 
user116211
> Let us now consider a system with given kinematical conditions between the coordinates.
 
user116211
That's it. Then he told there are two ways to attack the problem.
 
user116211
The one I discussed above is the second one.
 
user116211
One of the worst Sundays... how could I go ahead if I don't understand this? Damn ;/
 
Go back to (15.11)
 
user116211
11:07 AM
@JohnRennie okay
 
This form assumes all the particles move independently. That is, a movement $dx_i$ of one particle doesn't affect any other particle.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie yes.
 
If there were any interactions you'd get cross terms $dx_i dx_j$
And in that case the space would not be flat.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie sure.
 
user116211
Then?
 
11:09 AM
@MAFIA36790 I think so, though I wouldn't swear to it because I'm a fair way outside my comfort zone.
 
user116211
hmm. okay.
 
If this is what is meant by given kinematical conditions between the coordinates then such a system would not have a Euclidean space.
It would have a curvature that could not be transformed away by messing with the coordinates.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie Kinematical conditions mean constraints.
 
@MAFIA36790 ah, OK. I have no idea what constraints do to the geometry.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie They decrease the parameter $n,$ isn't it?
 
11:12 AM
The trouble is that I don't know enough about the subject to be able to answer. At best I can bounce a few ideas around that might help you figure it out for yourself ...
 
user116211
Degrees of freedom, I would say.
 
user116211
@JohnRennie sure, of course!
 
user116211
Anyways, @JohnRennie, I have to attend a call and do some chores; would be coming after half an hour or so.
 
user116211
Buti definitely want to comprehend what Lanczos meant to say.
 
user116211
I might end up posting it at Physics SE..... hmm, now that I'm not getting any response at Maths.
 
user116211
11:15 AM
....
 
I'm heading out in a bit and won't be back for a few hours ...
 
user116211
@JohnRennie sure. Meet you at the evening...
 
When 0celo7, Daniel, ACM etc appear I bet they will know.
 
11:38 AM
'lo again
Here with yet another layman question
 
Need to ask ACM and co. later. The physical meaning of the M matrix when the rank changes with time in that generalise D'alembert principle article
 
Are there more eigenvalues for a spin linear operator than $\pm 1$?
 
12:01 PM
not for electrons
 
12:52 PM
@MAFIA36790 : I know the answer to questions like that one.
@MAFIA36790 : Sigh. Not even a mention of the electromagnetic field.
 
user218912
1:30 PM
I need help doing a big integral for the fourier expansion of a wave function.
 
user218912
@Secret can you help?
 
I am not very good at integrals and fourier transform, but ask and see what I can do
 
user116211
Hey @JohnRennie, maybe I was thinking of re-wording the query and posting it here....
 
It's worth a try. We've got lots of members who are good on mechanics.
 
@JohnRennie correct, it's nonsense.
 
1:37 PM
@0celo7 since you're here I have a really basic diff geo question to ask you.
 
ok
 
In flat spacetime the Riemann curvature tensor is zero. So regardless of what coordinates I choose, cartesian, Rindler, polar, whatever I'll always find the Riemann tensor to be zero. Yes?
 
What do you mean by flat exactly
 
@0celo7 Minkowski spacetime.
 
there's more flat spacetimes than Minkowski
 
1:40 PM
OK, but for now stick to Minkowski spacetime.
 
then yes
 
This is the really basic question - don't laugh! When we say the Riemann tensor is zero does that mean all its components, written in every coordinate system, are zero?
 
It's enough to check it in one coordinate system
 
user218912
okay so first of all is $\int_0^a \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) \psi(t) dx$ equal to the same thing without the infinite sum?
 
But it depends on whom you ask that question
I would say it's zero if it's the 0 tensor
But a physicist would be OK with it being zero in every coordinate system
No, I take that back
physicists are wrong like usual
 
user218912
1:43 PM
@0celo7 I found the answer to the integral in cahill
 
user218912
but it doesn't have an infinite sum
 
user218912
can I take it out of the integral?
 
@JohnRennie For Riem to be truly zero, you need to check that it's zero in any coordinate chart.
 
@IceLord the $\psi(t)$ looks independent of x, thus I supose it can be taken out of integral
 
user218912
okay
 
1:44 PM
That is, you need to find an open covering of spacetime by coordinate patches, and look at the Riemann tensor in each one.
 
user218912
what about the sum?
 
The $\psi(t)$ also does not have n in it, thus it shoudl be independent of the sum
 
@JohnRennie For polar coordinates there's a trick
Polar coordinates only cover $\Bbb R^4-\{0\}$ (origin), so if you compute the Riemann tensor you can only say it's zero on that region
 
user218912
@Secret yea but I still don't know how to find the integral :(
 
user116211
What to do with this post:
 
user116211
1:46 PM
11
A: Why do people categorically dismiss some simple quantum models?

G. 't Hooft[ text I had put here is moved to the original question, but I prefer not to erase the comments that were posted here. ]

 
user116211
?
 
But, apply a continuity argument to see that it's 0 at the origin too.
 
user116211
@DavidZ seemed to leave a comment there; but OP didn't response further.
 
@0celo7 OK, thanks, I think I have the answer I need.
 
user218912
@Secret apparently you can take the sum out of the integral
 
user218912
1:47 PM
and multiply it in
 
@JohnRennie Why did you need to know that?
@JohnRennie Simply: any tensor is zero at a point iff it vanishes in a coordinate system at that point.
 
Yeah I think because the integrand is bounded, you are allowed to interchange the sum and integral. However I am thinking more about something like this:

The fourier sine series inside has a form which basically suggests the fourier coefficients are all 1. Using the [Known formula](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_sine_and_cosine_series) of the fourier coefficients, I think it might be possible to back out the f(x) that the fourier series is representing from that thus simplifying the sum
 
user116211
@0celo7 Why?
 
user116211
This is turning to a nightmare T__T
 
Why is it nonsense?
I have no clue, but it is.
 
user116211
1:58 PM
hmm.
 
Try experimenting on this $\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\psi(t)\int_0^a \sum_{n=0}^\infty \sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) dx$ and $\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\psi(t)\sum_{n=0}^\infty\int_0^a \sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) dx$ and see if they are equal. I'll try to quickly compute them after my bath
 
user218912
I found what the integral in the second expression is.
 
You can switch the sum with the integral if you prove absolute convergence.
 
I thought them being bounded is enough?
 
user218912
@0celo7 yes
 
user218912
2:01 PM
cahill proves it
 
user218912
so i'm good
 
page?
 
user218912
95
 
That's not a proof!
That's physics babble!
 
user218912
lol...
 
2:03 PM
ok you were gonna tell me how i've changed
 
user116211
@0celo7 That's why he is a (to-be) physicist ;P
 
user218912
@0celo7 it's gonna be a long discussion so later.
 
Hi, everybody.
 
user218912
hi @DanielSank
 
user218912
do you have any input on solving this integral?
 
2:06 PM
@IceLord link
 
user218912
$\int_0^a \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) \psi(t) dx$
 
@IceLord so you're never gonna tell me basically
 
user218912
@0celo7 someday.
 
@IceLord prove uniform convergence, pull the sum out, do the integral
 
user218912
yes
 
2:07 PM
the $\psi$ can be pulled out too
 
user218912
but my final answer is different.
 
user218912
from the answer in the problem
 
Why is this hard?
 
user218912
it's not hard
 
do they not have a sum?
 
2:07 PM
oh
 
user218912
the integral is
 
user218912
$\frac{8(-1)^n -1}{\pi\sqrt{3} n(n^2-4)}$
 
@IceLord That's not an integral, that's an expression with some $n$'s in it :)
 
user218912
no I mean the computed integral
 
Not sure what you mean.
Going to put chocolate ganache on my cake...
 
user218912
2:10 PM
$\int_0^a \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) \psi(t) dx = \psi(t) \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{8(-1)^n -1}{\pi\sqrt{3} n(n^2-4)}$
 
user218912
according to the book
 
really?
 
user218912
yes
 
$$\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\int_0^a \sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)dx$$
Ehhhh,maybe
 
user218912
look in cahill
 
2:12 PM
did you try mathematica
 
user218912
same page 95
 
user218912
he does it
 
user218912
i don't have it installed
 
Dude
He's doing a different integral.
 
user218912
oh
 
user218912
2:13 PM
xD
 
user218912
oh shit
 
user218912
he uses the $\psi(t)$
 
user218912
i didn't notice that
 
user218912
:(
 
user116211
Hmm, Lanczos writes Riemannian manifold is locally diffeomorphic to Euclidean space....
 
2:18 PM
what's a Riemannian space
 
user116211
@BalarkaSen oops.
 
user116211
Now, have to google what diffeomorphic means.
 
right. smooth manifolds are by definition locally diffeomorphic to Euclidean space
 
user218912
$\int_0^a \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \sin(\frac{n\pi x}{a}) \psi(t) dx = \psi(t) \sum_{n=0}^\infty -\frac{\sqrt 2 \sqrt a ((-1)^n -1}{\pi n}$
 
user218912
@0celo7
 
user218912
2:20 PM
how do I find that sum?
 
user218912
is is simpler if I take out the $\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{a}}$
 
user116211
@BalarkaSen Do the metrical properties like distance remain preserved? I guess, no.
 
@MAFIA36790 I don't think all Riemannian manifolds are locally isometric to R^n.
I think @0celo7 was saying an obstruction in terms of curvatures. You should ask him.
 
@MAFIA36790 Any manifold is locally diffeo to Euclidean space.
By definition.
 
user116211
@0celo7 ohh. So, why did he specify the Riemannian manifold?
 
user116211
2:27 PM
Good question:
 
user116211
2
Q: Set theories used in mathematical physical theories

QwedfsfFor most theorems, this is unimportant - a typical problem will have the same solutions in NFU, ZFC or some other theory, since said theories got popular precisely because they give pretty much the same results that were derived in "naive", earlier mathematics, and so fit our intuitive understand...

 
@MAFIA36790 No, that happens iff the Riemann tenor vanishes.
 
user116211
@0celo7 okay.
 
@MAFIA36790 Because physicists don't know that there are other manifolds besides Riemannian ones.
I once thought that too.
 
user116211
@0celo7 ah!
 
user218912
2:29 PM
I figured it out!!!!
 
user218912
brb food
 
@MAFIA36790 delete it (which I did now)
 
user218912
yep I'm stuck now
 
@Secret what function is that
@IceLord do you have to?
 
@Secret Dude.
 
user218912
@0celo7 do I?
 
Of course not. The prefactors are all 1.
 
2:55 PM
I don't know, your homework, not mine.
 
sup @Danu?
 
So obviously we MUST swap the integral with the sum then
 
@DanielSank Complex geometry lyfe
 
@Danu o_O
Not even sure what that means.
 
Theory of complex manifolds (so basically replace "smooth" by "holomorphic" and see how it works out)
 
user218912
2:57 PM
oh...
 
user218912
wtf
 
Turns out to be very algebraic (very close to algebraic geometry (over $\Bbb C$))
 
user218912
the integral is actually $\frac{a}{2}$
 
user218912
it's squared
 
Which I don't really love, since I don't know any higher algebra
 
2:58 PM
@Danu I always wished I'd done a course in algebraic geometry.
 
Anybody: if I say right hand rule, what do you think I'm referring to?
 
I started one, but I didn't know some of the words, and I quit.
 
@IceLord Using what 0celo7 told you about swapping sum and integral, after the integration you should end up with a cos series instead with L and 0 subbed in. Now $cos (n\pi)$ have an interesting form as $(-1)^n-1$ that should give you the form the answer they want
 
@JohnDuffield Probably torque.
Possibly magnetic field around a wire.
Could also be how to remember which way to turn a screw, but I prefer "lefty loosey righty tighty".
 
orientation of coordinate systems
 
2:59 PM
@DanielSank Yeah?
 
@Danu Yeah
 
So I tried to take one here---it clashes with the course my supervisor is teaching.
 
@DanielSank that rule is good until you forget which way "turn right is"
it's very counterintuitive
 
Turns out neither is willing to move a single lecture by two hours.
 
@Danu dang
 
2:59 PM
The algebraic geometer actually said "I can't change this because this is how it has been for the past ten years"
 
I bet the course would have been too abstract for my liking anyway.
@Danu Wow.
 

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