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12:16 AM
But the sum of the maxes $\geq$ the max of the sums, amirite?
 
@MikeMiller I only got 40... I spent too long on a problem, evaluating a sum.
 
oof :(
 
This text says "Let $X_i$ be spaces and let $\pi_i : \Pi_i X_i \to X_i$ be the projection." What is the general definition of a "projection?"
 
the projection $X \times Y \to X$ is the map $(x,y) \mapsto x$
generalize
 
$\pi_i(a,\dots,d,x_i,e,\dots,f) = x_i$, if I'm not mistaken.
where $x_i \in X_i$.
 
12:25 AM
Oh, thank you
 
if you're just talking categorically, though, the product $\prod_i X_i$ has a "projection map" $\pi_j: \prod_i X_i \to X_j$ just as part of the data of the product
in an arbitrary category there's not much reason to believe it relates the notion of projection of a cartesian product of sets
 
@MikeMiller I'm reading through Lang's Algebra book, and I came across the below- it's really obvious, but I'm blanking on what a good way to show it might be.
It's talking about a commutative monoid.
I mean I guess since it says almost all pairs, I could just make one product by indexing over the pairs, and use the rule for commutativity with just one variable... I just dunno. And does this fail if it's not the identity for almost all pairs?
I guess it could.
 
It says "almost all pairs" so that that product is well-defined; otherwise, how do you multiply infinitely many elements? When you expand it ends up just being a product of finitely many terms, like you said, and then it's just commutativity in one variable.
 
You multiply infinitely many elements... from left to right. :P
And yeah, gracias.
This is gonna be a loooooong semester.
 
12:40 AM
Who's teaching the course, @Anthony? Oh, and I just emailed you.
 
I'll go check- and I'm taking algebra with Ken Ribet!
 
Oh, wow. He's an old friend (even on Facebook). He's a fantastic mathematician and teacher.
I wanted to see him when I'm up there, but he'll be out of town.
 
Oh! I see. I'm looking forward to being less horrible at algebra by the end of the semester.
I'll reply in a bit to your email. I should be free anytime after 12, though!
 
Awesome. Looking forward to it. Maybe I can help you be slightly less horrible.
 
:D
 
1:05 AM
@TedShifrin Are you still there?
 
Where?
 
hohoho
In Lang, in his discussion of monoids, he talks about the homeomorphism classes of compact surfaces
 
i remember this. it was very silly.
 
@morphic: I will complain about that notation. I would insist on writing $$\pi_i\colon \prod_j X_j \to X_i.$$
 
He says that the 2-sphere is the unit- why is this the case? My understanding of the monoidal operation is that you just stick one shape onto another?
 
1:07 AM
define connected sum for me
 
So sticking a sphere onto another surface gives you the same surface back, just with a bulge. But homeomorphic.
Sorry, @Mike. I forgot I'd been fired.
 
meh
 
@MikeMiller You identify the inside of one circle on one surface with the inside of another circle on another surface, right?
 
i don't like that. let's be rigorous.
 
I mean I can retype what he wrote lol
 
1:09 AM
Rigorous? This is an algebra course :D
 
I haven't worked with connected sums before, but I guess that doesn't matter.
 
the connected sum of $\Sigma_1$ and $\Sigma_2$ is given by an embedding of a ball $i_i: D^n \to \Sigma_i$, deleting the interior of $i_i(D^n)$, and then gluing the resulting manifolds together by the induced identification of the boundary spheres $i_i(S^n)$
 
Oh, man you beat me.
 
connected sum with a sphere is trivial because the complement of an open disc in a sphere is... a disc again
but ted's right, this is an algebra course, who even cares
 
:P
 
1:12 AM
Lang is a really tough book unless you know a lot of it already.
But I know Ken has personal fondnesses for it.
 
OH
I get it
I'm dumb
 
you're not dumb
connected sums are hard
 
I mean, they aren't hard to visualize right?
 
@Anthony: If you aspire to go to grad school in math, you need an attitude adjustment.
 
i also implicitly assumed connected sum was well-defined. ;)
 
1:14 AM
@TedShifrin I've actually been thinking about this a bit.
 
I don't think I've ever worried about well-definedness, @MikeM
We can talk about it if you want, @Anthony.
 
@Ted: Since you only work with smooth manifolds, that's ok, because it's not hard to prove
modulo the standard concerns that your manifolds are oriented, or non-orientable, or one supports an orientation-reversing diffeomorphism.
 
@TedShifrin I'll think about what questions I should ask you. I'm sure there's a lot.
Anyway, I think I should go outside for a bit.
Talk to ya'll later
 
Bubye.
 
i don't think well-definedness of connected sums of topological 4-manifolds was known before the 80s.
 
1:17 AM
Now you have me confused about the orientation-reversing diffeo.
 
How many people here are bilingual, out of curiosity?
(אני יודע עברית)
 
What's your definition of bilingual, @columbus? Equally good in both? Or good in both?
 
Good in both.
 
Then I'll raise my hand.
 
What language?
 
1:18 AM
I'd almost go for trilingual, but the third is weaker.
 
English, French, German ...
 
(I have one year of Spanish classes behind me)
 
One year of Spanish doesn't count :P Make it 4 years.
 
@Ted: The issue is you need to be able to identify your embedded discs; if you reverse the orientation of one of the discs, you can change the topological type of the resulting manifold. This is why $\Bbb{CP}^2 \# \Bbb{CP}^2$ is not homeomorphic to $\Bbb{CP}^2 \# \overline{\Bbb{CP}^2}$. If one of your manifolds is non-orientable, or supports an orientation-reversing diffeomorphism, it doesn't matter
 
1:19 AM
@TedShifrin They'll be over before I know it. I hope.
 
Because you can reverse the orientation of that first disc by moves that don't change the topological type of the connected sum.
 
Oh, I see what you meant, @MikeM.
LOL, @columbus.
I did 3 years of college German, but it's still behind my French and English.
 
Why do so many mathematicians know French?
 
Typically, 4 years of high school is about 3 semesters of college
 
(Or is that not accurate?)
 
1:21 AM
Because there's so much good French mathematics.
Not to say I know French. I can read French mathematics. I still need subtitles if I'm watching a French movie.
 
@MikeMiller In a conversation about languages, you might want to watch your English, sir.
:P
Oh wait
 
No.
 
To get a Ph.D. mathematicians are supposed to have a reading knowledge in at least one language (French, German, Russian are the usual ones). In my day, it was two of those. But now a lot of schools use computer programming skills instead of one.
 
Shoot
I'm sorry
I misread
Your English is fine
 
That's unlikely. Maybe it was in those two lines, though.
 
1:22 AM
@MikeM and I have argued about English syntax before. He really doesn't believe in it.
 
That is incorrect.
 
LOL
 
It is something up with which I shall not put, as Churchill said that one time.
Hey, you guys both live in CA (in cities with Spanish names), I'd expect you guys to know Spanish.
 
I never learned Spanish, but it's on my list of things to do the next few years.
 
You expect too much from me.
 
1:24 AM
I mean, instead of French.
 
I lived in god-forsaken Georgia for 34 years, @columbus.
 
(Your profile has French on it, so I assumed you know French)
 
French was chosen for academic reasons and because I loved the literature.
 
@TedShifrin Ah.
 
Spanish will now be practical.
 
1:25 AM
I live in NYC. There are Spanish ads on the subway.
(Which helps with the Spanish practice)
I know Hebrew, though, since I'm Jewish. (I wouldn't say I'm fluent, but I think I have a decent amount.)
 
well, @Columbus, I'm Jewish, and I know some Yiddish through German, but I know 0 Hebrew.
 
It's not a strict implication.
 
LOL
We've had issues with implications, haven't we? :D
 
I think your joke just flew over my head there
 
I was referring to that logic question we both were answering, somewhat confusedly, the other night.
 
1:31 AM
Ahh
Right
You at least know some Hebrew, though:
$\aleph$ and $\beth$.
And quite a bit of Greek, for the same reason, of course
 
I used to know some of the alphabet from playing dreidl, but I've forgotten.
 
נ ג ה ש
From right-to-left, "nun gimmel heh shin"
 
That was a long time ago :)
OK, time for dinner and packing. You all misbehave without me.
 
Packing?
 
2-week trip
 
1:33 AM
Nice, have fun!
 
Tanx.
 
$\tan x$
 
no, not that.
 
Goodbye!
 
Enjoy yourself @TedShifrin
You deserve it
 
1:39 AM
Up for debate.
 
lol
 
user147690
1:52 AM
Can I have a hint or some guidance in general for showing that if $|G|=112$ and $H=A_7 \cap G$ then $H\trianglelefteq G$?
 
user147690
Actually I think it isn't simple oops.
 
How do you intersect $A_7$ with $G$?
 
An intersection is the junction at grade (that is to say, on the same level) of two or more roads either meeting or crossing. An intersection may be three-way (a T junction or Y junction – the latter also known as a fork), four-way (a crossroads), or have five or more arms. Busy intersections are often controlled by traffic lights and/or a roundabout. This article primarily reflects practice in jurisdictions where vehicles are driven on the right. If not otherwise specified, "right" and "left" can be reversed to reflect jurisdictions where vehicles are driven on the left. == Types of inte...
Let me google that for you
 
lol
 
2:12 AM
Does anyone know what the metric tensor is for an n-sphere in ambient n+1-Cartesian coordinates?
 
Does anyone here know how UVA works?
I am having problem submitting stuff in java.
 
user147690
@MikeMiller Well $|G|=2^4 * 7$ so we have 7 sylow 2-groups, and it gives us an embedding of $G\hookrightarrow S_7$
 
user147690
2:27 AM
But I did that with $G$ is simple, so I got confused :\
 
@AlexClark: Your goal was to prove that $G$ is not simple, yes?
 
user147690
Yep
 
user147690
It asked me to(treat $G$ as simple in the first question), and then it says that we can conclude that there is no simple group of order $112$(in the second question)
 
@AlexClark: OK, you start by embedding $G \hookrightarrow S_7$. (This is what I was bugging you about before - we need an embedding into some group that $A_7$ is a subgroup of, or else intersection makes no sense.)
 
user147690
Ok sure
 
2:31 AM
Now that you have this, there are two options. Either $G$ is a subgroup of $A_7$ or, well, it's not.
If it's not, then $G \cap A_7$ is a subgroup of index 2 in $G$. (Why?) And then you use the fact that subgroups of index two are automatically normal.
 
@MikeMiller how can I prove this?
 
user147690
@dREaM Are you simulating me or? :P
 
lol, no
 
prove $G$ is either a subgroup or isn't?
 
yeah
oh nevermind
 
2:34 AM
It's not obvious to me that $G$ can't be a subgroup of $A_7$, but it shouldn't be, so I guess you have to be more clever than I am.
 
I thought he wanted to prove $G$ was either a subgroup of $A_7$ or a well.
 
user147690
lol
 
user147690
So 2520/112 is not integer, so then by lagranges, G isn't a subgroup of A_7
 
Yes, a group with $112$ elements cannot be a subgroup of $A_7$.
$A_7$ has no subgroups with $112$ elements.
 
lol
i forgot to divide by two.
that two always gets me man
 
user147690
2:39 AM
What 2?
 
$7!/2$
 
user147690
Oh
 
user147690
The S_7 to A_7
 
hah, now you sound like a physics student. "damned factors of two!"
 
@MikeMiller how did you type the "embedding " arrow in tex?
 
user147690
2:41 AM
\hookrightarrow
 
$\hookrightarrow$, oh thats kewl.
 
being able to right-click mathjax text to see latex commands i don't know is one of the pleasures of chat here :)
 
user147690
Or even just turning off mathjax :P
 
@Semiclassical thanks for that.
 
or that, yeah :P
though that doesn't help on the main site
 
user147690
2:43 AM
Actually I am pretty sure it does, I think rendering off works
 
In the main site you can just try to edit the question to see how it was coded.
and then go back without editing.
 
true, but right-clicking still works
 
user147690
I have to go to class in a few min, can I have one more hint for the index 2?
 
@AlexClark hadn't thought about that, good point
 
You would like to prove a group of index $2$ is normal?
 
user147690
2:46 AM
No, I wanted why $[G:G\cap A_7]=2$
 
What is the induced metric tensor on an n-sphere in (n+1)-dimensional Cartesian coordinates?
Does anyone know?
 
the round metric on the sphere is precisely the restriction/pullback of the standard metric on euclidean space to the unit sphere
so i guess the answer would be "$dx_1^2 + \dots + dx_{n+1}^2$"
 
that sounds not quite right, though I'm probably forgetting something. if one's on the unit sphere, there's the additional constraint that $x_1^2+\dots +x_{n+1}^2=1$.
though i suppose that's the point of it being the induced metric
 
@AlexClark are $G$ and $A_7$ inside a bigger group?
 
3:05 AM
@Semiclassical The "I guess" was guessing what the interpretation of his question was. The thing I said is true, the round metric is defined as the pullback of the standard Euclidean metric.
 
Well I know that the distance is given by arccos(a dot b)
 
It doesn't really make sense to ask about the metric in $(n+1)$-dimensional ambient coordinates. What one usually asks is, given a certain coordinate chart on $S^n$, what's the metric in this chart? And then you can pullback to $\Bbb R^n$ and make sense of it there.
 
Yeah
 
fair enough. just seems strange to have an $n+1$-coordinate metric on an $n$-dimensional surface. (though, again, induced metric)
 
The reason I'm asking is because I'm using n + 1 coordinates rather than n to prevent singularities
e.g. instead of azimuthal angle, polar angle, hyperpolar angle, etc.
They have singularities.
 
3:08 AM
i was just trying the hyper-spherical coordinates to see what happens :P
 
It's the analogue of en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperboloid_model for a sphere
which has arccosh in Minkowski space rather than arccos in Euclidean space
 
what i was doing was just looking at the definition of induced metric tensor at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Induced_metric
with hyperspherical coordinates embedding the $n$-sphere into $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$
probably not what you're after, though
 
Yeah, I'm trying to avoid using (hyper)spherical coordinates
I would have to split into patches or something to avoid the singularities (I think)
The reason for this is I'm trying to parallel transport vectors
I need the Christoffel symbols
I already figured out the exponential/logarithmic map for geodesics
Purely geometrically
 
3:48 AM
I could use a hint as to how to arrive at a combinatorial/fibonacci identity. The problem is to count the number of ordered partitions of $n$ indistinct elements into (distinct) parts which are all odd in size. I claim (as is implied by the problem and checking the first several cases) that this is equal to $F_{n}$. I tried making a bijection from this problem to that of finding the number of ordered nonempty partitions (without further restriction),
The expression I got from that however seems wonky and doesn't seem to simplify well.
I get after breaking it into cases, that in the case that $n=2m$ is even, that $t(n)=\sum\limits_{j\geq 1} \binom{m+j-1}{2j-1}$, and that when $n=2m+1$ is odd, that $t(n)=\sum\limits_{j\geq 0}\binom{m+j}{2j}$. This, coming from looking at the young diagram and "collapsing" pairs of adjacent squares in a row into a single square with the exception of those squares in the first column.
 
4:21 AM
@JMoravitz it seems like it'd be easier to show that it satisfies the same recursion as the Fibonacci numbers. (and i think i even see how that might work out, though i've not convinced myself yet)
i think it works to list out the cases of $n,n+1$ in terms of stars-and-bars, and then consider what one would need to add on to each of those to get an example for $n+2$
actually, here's probably the better hint: If I have such a composition of $n$ into odd parts, then in particular the last term is either equal to one, or to some other larger odd number.
 
Hmm.. when dealing with trying to go from 4 and 5 to 6, and 5 and 6 to 7, I think I did that, but didn't see how the ones that end in a number other than one correspond to the amount of partitions into odd parts for the size two less
 
stars-and-bars helped me see it. for example, i can write 5=1+1+3. in stars-and-bars, that's ${|*|**}$.
bah, mathjax formatting
...urgh, asterisks don't work so well as stars. okay, x|x|xxx
 
Well, $t(1)=t(2)=1$ is obvious, what with the only of expressing $1$ is $(1)$, and $2$ as $(1,1)$. For the "larger" cases, its not readily apparent how to do so., $4=\begin{cases} (1,1,1,1)\(3,1)\(1,3)\end{cases}$, $5=\begin{cases}(1,1,1,1,1)\(3,1,1)\(1,3,1)\(1,1,3)\(5)\end{cases}$, $6=\begin{cases}\color{red}{(1,1,1,1,1},1)\\ \color{red}{(3,1,1},1)\\\color{red}{(1,3,1},1)\\ \color{red}{(1,1,3},1)\(1,1,1,3)\\ \color{red}{(5},1)\(1,5)\end{cases}$
 
the trick, i suppose, is seeing how to relate x|x|xxx to an odd composition of 3
which, considering the only two options there are x|x|x or xxx ...
 
too much effort in trying to debug that message of mine, >_<
 
4:36 AM
no worries, that's why i gave up on working with "*"
 
(my list of partitions above is missing (3,3) for the record., I was worried that I counted wrong)
 
gotcha. i hadn't even noticed, tbh, since my visualization is in terms of stars-and-bars rather than lists
but if you take that example of stars-and-bars for $n=5$ (i.e. x|x|xxx) and think through the options for $n=3$ (i.e. x|x|x and xxx) the relation should hopefully become clear.
 
Oh, that's nifty., I think I see it. The problem is then proving it,
 
I was just at my whiteboard for a while, not at my desk
Its always frustrating to go and delete multiple paragraphs of writing, but its being replaced with something much better, so its fair I suppose
 
4:52 AM
gotcha. i suppose if one wants to write up a proof, one should probably speak bijectively: 1) start with an odd composition of $n$ and show it can be identified with an odd composition of either $n-2$ or $n-1$, 2) start with odd compositions of $n-2$ or $n-1$ and show that each yields an odd composition of $n$.
 
Hello!
 
Good evening
speaking of evening, I really should get to sleep. Thanks for the tips @Semiclassical
 
i'm not much of a proof guy nowadays, so i'm happy with just saying "The last summand is odd, so it's either equal to one or something bigger. In the first case, dropping that summand gives an odd composition of $n-1$; in the second, subtracting two from the last summand gives an odd composition of $n-2$."
np
 
I was trying to prove the integral representation of the polylogarithm function. Any ideas how to proceed?
 
@Samurai: What definition do you start with, and what representation are you trying to establish?
 
4:58 AM
$\operatorname{Li}_{s}(z)=\dfrac{1}{\Gamma(s)}\int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{t^{s-1}}{\‌​frac{e^t}{z}-1}\mathrm{d}t$
@Semiclassical
 
denominator should be $e^t/z-1$?
 
Denominator is $\frac{e^t}{z}-1$
 
and which definition of polylog?
 
sum definition
$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\dfrac{z^k}{k^s}$
@Semiclassical
 
okay.
the way i usually prove that is by doing a series expansion of the integrand in powers of $e^t/z$, then integrating term by term and showing that this implies the sum definition
 
5:04 AM
You mean expanding $\frac{1}{(e^t)/z-1}$ as a GP?
Geometric Progression
 
right. that works if $|z|<1$, at least, since then $|z e^{-t}|<1$ for all positive $t$
past that one runs into issues regarding analytic continuation. plus one probably should justify that term-by-term integration. the more rigorous/complete approach is probably to relate that real-line integral to a complex contour integral, and then use the residue theorem
 
Term by term can be justified by Tolleni's theorem
 
sounds right. i tend to be pretty careless about that kind of thing b/c i don't do proofs often, but i figured i should point it out.
 
If I take $\dfrac{a}{1-r}$ as the sum of infinite G.P. and take $a=-1$ and $r=\frac{e^t}{z}$, isn't the series diverging since $|r|>1$ ? @Semiclassical
 
yep. that's why you don't do that expansion, but rather rearrange and do it using $1/r$ in your notation.
 
5:13 AM
Oh right, I got it now. Sorry
 
heh, it's fine.
anyways, once you've expanded you're in a position to consider the integral term-by-term. shouldn't be too bad at that point.
especially if you remember the integral definition of the gamma function, heh
 
Also, I was wondering that is there any non complex-analysis method to find closed form of $\int{0}{\infty}\dfrac{x^s}{ax^2+bx+c}\mathrm{d}x$ ?
 
hrm. can't say i know myself, since i know the complex-analysis way instead.
 
What way do you know? I used Master Theorem @Semiclassical
 
i'd have to sit down to do it, but
via complex analysis, one would presumably use a keyhole contour and then make arguments re: which portions matter and how those relate to the original integral
then residue theorem, and you're (hopefully) done.
the person who might know is @Chris'ssistheartist; figuring out how to do integrals without recourse to complex analysis is something she's known for around here.
 
5:23 AM
Oh. Even @AnatasiyaRomanova is good, but she's offline these days
I used the summation of Chebishev polynomial of the second kind and then used Ramanujan's Master Theorem @Semiclassical
 
gotcha.
that's definitely a classy way to do it
 
But the proof of master theorem uses complex analysis.
So it's indirectly a complex analysis way
 
Right
 
I gotta go now. Nice talking to you @Semiclassical
 
Same to uou
 
6:04 AM
@MikeMiller Do you have any good hint for proving the long exact sequence property for $[-, K(G, n)]$? That part seems hard.
 
6:16 AM
Hmm, wait a second. $\Omega K(G, n)$ is actually a $K(G, n - 1)$, since $\pi_i(\Omega K(G, n)) = \pi_{i+1}(K(G, n))$ vanishes for $i > n - 1$, is $G$ at $i = n - 1$ and again $0$'s for everything below. That said, you have the bijection equivalence $[X, \Omega Y] \simeq [\Sigma X, Y]$ (take a image of $x_0 \times I$ in $\Sigma X$ by the qt map $SX \to \Sigma X$, and map it onto $Y$ to get a loop. this defines a bijection).
The LES we have to establish is $\cdots \leftarrow [A, K(G, n)] \leftarrow [X, K(G, n)] \leftarrow [X/A, K(G, n)] \leftarrow [X, K(G, n + 1)] \leftarrow \cdots$. At the level of sets, this is equivalent to $\cdots \leftarrow [A, K(G, n)] \leftarrow [X, K(G, n)] \leftarrow [X/A, K(G, n) \leftarrow [\Sigma X, K(G, n)] \leftarrow \cdots$
Weird, it looks like a functorial thing now. I don't know what to do next.
 
6:52 AM
@Balarka: Before I can tell you if that's exaxt you need to tell me what the boundary map is.
 
@MikeMiller I don't know. I just assumed that the long exact sequence exists and reversed engineered it to get to that functorial-looking seqeuence.
Of course I haven't proved anything
That's what I was asking for : I don't know how to prove it, and I'd be glad to get a hint.
 
7:11 AM
@BalarkaSen: So you need a map $[X/A, K(G,n)] \to [\Sigma A, K(G,n)]$. (The $X$ in your note is oddly placed.)
This is hypothetically the same as singular cohomology, right? Why not do the same thing you do to define a boundary map then: use a snake argument?
 
I guess I have switched the arrows too. Let me right it down.
mumbles curses to contravariance
 
Well, now the arrows go in the right way, but it should be $[A,K(G,n)] \to [\Sigma(X/A), K(G,n)]$.
 
yeah, agreed.
It should have been $\cdots \to [X/A, K(G, n)] \to [X, K(G, n)] \to [A, K(G, n)] \to [\Sigma(X/A), K(G, n)] \to \cdots$.
@MikeMiller Admittedly, I don't see a short exact sequence of chain complexes to apply the snake lemma, but let me ponder.
 
Morally. There's no actual chain complex here or it'd be boring.
 
7:39 AM
Wait, what? This is confusing. We have the LES $\cdots \to [X/A, K(G, n-1)] \to [X, K(G, n-1)] \to [A, K(G, n-1)] \stackrel{\partial}{\to} [X/A, K(G, n)] \to [X, K(G, n)] \to [A, K(G, n)] \to \cdots$ As $\Omega K(G, n) = K(G, n - 1)$, we can write this as $\cdots \to [\Sigma(X/A), K(G, n)] \to [\Sigma X, K(G, n)] \to [\Sigma A, K(G, n)] \stackrel{\partial}{\to} [X/A, K(G, n)] \to \cdots$
So the snake map should be $[\Sigma A, K(G, n)] \to [X/A, K(G, n)]$, not what you wrote down, @MikeMiller
That said, note that as we are working in the category of CW-complexes, $X/A$ is homotopy equivalent to $X \cup CA$. The obvious choice for the snake map is the map obtained from applying $[-, K(G, n)]$ to the quotient map $X \cup CA \to (X \cup CA)/X$
 
Oh, you win. That sounds good. Now you have a map, so prove that gives an LES.
(You're only workoing with homotopy classes of maps, so taking a homotopy inverse $X/A \to X \cup CA$ suffices to identify the sets of maps.)
 
7:57 AM
Does $\| Tx\| = \|x\|, \forall x \implies \|Tx-Ty\| =\|x-y\|$?
Is an Isometry a linear map?
I imagine not in general, since there is defined a 'linear isometry'
 
8:35 AM
What are $\| \dots \|$ and $T$ in this case, @FunctionalAnalysis?
 
@FunctionalAnalysis If T is linear, then you have $Tx-Ty=T(x-y)$. So in this case the answer is clearly yes. (And the notation $\|T\|$ usually stands for a norm of a linear functional.)
 
9:29 AM
@MikeMiller I am a bit confused about something I got busy discussing with prof. $\Bbb RP^2 \to X$ be a map to a simply connected space $X$. This is trivial at $\pi_1$ level. So $\Bbb RP^1$ inside $\Bbb RP^2$ maps to something in $X$ which is homotopic to the zero loop. This seems to imply that any map $\Bbb RP^2 \to X$ is homotopic to a map $\Bbb RP^2 \to X$ which factors through the quotient map $\Bbb RP^2 \to S^2$. I don't think this is true. Can you point out what goes wrong here?
the quotient map is $\Bbb RP^2 \to \Bbb RP^2/\Bbb RP^1$, btw.
but i guess that's clear from the question
 
10:26 AM
@r9m @robjohn this is a very very cute question, that is to find a nice closed form of $$\int_1^a \int_1^b \frac{1}{(x+y) (1+x y)} \ dx \ dy$$
 
r9m
11:08 AM
@Chris'ssistheartist Nice!! :D Call the integral $F(a,b) = \int_1^a \int_1^b \frac{1}{(x+y) (1+x y)} \ dx \ dy$, then $F(a,b)= -F(a^{-1},b) = F(b,a) = F(a^{-1},b^{-1}) = etc$, so wlog we may take $a,b < 1$, then open $\frac{1}{1+xy}$ as a GP and use an old integral you showed me in chat once :) will that work?
 
@r9m Express it in terms of legendre chi function. :-)
Back in 30 min. :-)
 
11:38 AM
@MikeMiller Nevermind about what I said. It is true. What is not true is something someone was trying to infer from it.
To prove what I was claiming to be false, just extend the map to $\Bbb RP^2 \cup C\Bbb RP^1$.
 
r9m
@DanielFischer If we have a analytic function bounded in say $[0,1)$, can we say something about the taylor expansion coefficients of the function at $0$?
In particular if the function has a singularity at $z = 1$.
 
@r9m You only have boundedness on $[0,1)$? Then I don't think one could say much. It can still have singularities arbitrarily close to $0$. Even if it's analytic on the whole unit disk, boundedness on $[0,1)$ alone doesn't give you much, I think.
 
r9m
@DanielFischer ah! okay .. what about lacunary functions?
 
11:53 AM
@r9m Don't think you can say much. But I'm not an expert in that.
 
r9m
@DanielFischer I'm scratching my head over something .. when you have time check AMM 11849 problem ..
 
@r9m Got a link ready to paste?
 
r9m
@DanielFischer @morphic's one! thanks!
 

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