If you show that $\frac{k^3}{3} + k^2 < \frac{(k+1)^3}{3}$, then you've shown that your original LHS is less than $\frac{(k+1)^3}{3}$, which is the proposition that we've called $A(k+1)$.
I feel that scientists have created ambigious math notations that may not look ambiguous to us humans (at first glance) but could look ambiguous to some aliens.
Say an alien comes to our planet Earth. What I'm saying is, 'it' might find our notation so ambiguous (after learning everything about it) that they'd have to read a notation for like a minute to understand it.
If you have assumed a proposition's truth for an arbitrary case, say $n=k$, then have been able to use that assumption to prove the next case's validity, you can establish the proposition's truth for a base case, which will imply the case after that is true, then the one after than, and the one after that.
i'm struggling big-time with rationalizing a nasty limit. in the following latex, the limit is the term on the left, the middle and right terms are what i'm (wanting|hoping) to multiply by, to get rid of the radicals. but i don't know where to start. anyone can tell me how to get started with this beast?
@Huy Haha - why am I chuckling? Because I got myself in a twist when I did that - see math.stackexchange.com/questions/917440/… where once I rationalized the denominator it came out as 2-x, so was still zero when I substituted 2 for x
I'm making a conscious effort to ask questions on the site before I ask here, so that the next user(s) can benefit from the answers, but I just ran out of ideas this time, despite people trying to help
We want to prove that the proposition $A(k+1)$ is true by using $A(k)$ which we have assumed to be true to make sure that there's a domino effect starting with $k=1$.
If we can do this, then we can establish that $A(1)$ being true implies $A(2)$ is true and so on and so forth.
We have $A(k)$, the statement that suggests that this inequality is true $$1^2 + 2^2 + \dots + (k-1)^2 < \frac{k^3}{3}$$
Adding $k^2$ to both sides will give you $$1^2 + 2^2 + \dots + (k-1)^2 + k^2 < \frac{k^3}{3} + k^2$$
We already know that the proposition $A(k+1)$ tells us that this inequality may or may not be true $$1^2 + 2^2 + \dots + (k-1)^2 + k^2 < \frac{(k+1)^3}{3}$$
I hope I helped. It took me far longer than you can imagine, to grasp induction, @Sabಠ_ಠ. I wasn't taught it well at all. I was just taught to remember a bunch of steps.
I wouldn't go as far as saying that, @Ted. I've had some pretty hopeless math teachers. They'd only teach to the exams and wouldn't enrich my learning in any way.
@TedShifrin I think they pay on the assumption it takes an hour to prepare an hour of lecture, although our class notes are for the most part given to us
@TedShifrin I am okay with limiting the conceptual background and theory behind math in low-level classes - most of the students have no interest in math and won't see any higher math courses, and we don't have time to cover theory (it also hurts grades because of information overload). if the theory behind math will help the student learn and remember facts and formulas, I'll try to add it in though.
So, I got a comment on a text I'm writing that since for $u \in U$ and $v \in U$, i have that $u + v \not\in U$ , then I can't call $U$ a space, but it must be called a set. I don't really have any problems with calling it a set (there is just one occurrence in the text), but I've never really heard anyone refer to the "trial set" in mathematics, only the "trial space". I tried to find exact definitions of spaces and sets, but it doesn't seem all that clear to me.
for example, our class notes don't mention the fact that the distance formula is from the pythagorean theorem, or why the midpoint formula is what it is.
@anon: They'll need Pythagoras in other contexts, so making that connection is good. Midpoint of line segment in $\Bbb R$ as average should precede two-D, I think.
Someone has just asked for a proof that $\sum_{i=0}^n \binom ni = 2^n$. It's impossible that this hasn't come up several times before, but I can't find where.
@MJD $2^n$ is the number of ways one can pick up one elt from $\{0,1\}$ from $n$ boxes. More simply, it's the number of ways to pick up anything at all from $n$ boxes (the zero being interpreted as picking nothing). However, $\binom{n}{k}$ is the number of ways of picking up $k$ stuffs out of $n$ boxes. The result follows.
Just a note - various people have helped me with my struggles the last few days, well the material's "learnt" and now I'm just doing questions. So far done around 25 limit questions, and already feeling more comfortable, and bizarrely, even starting to feel pangs of fun / enjoyment! Who knew???
And limits are my nemesis. When I get to derivatives, investigating functions, matrices, I'm much more comfortable
general question - do people believe it's a good idea to copy down the given equation(s) or whatever at the start of an answer? just to internalize it?
@Chris'ssis This almost choked me to death :O .. how did they find that function $\displaystyle \pi \cot(\pi z) \Big(\psi(-z) + \gamma \Big) \psi_{1}(-z)$ ?!
see creasson's posts on page 2 and 3 .. he did the alternating sums as well :O