« first day (5011 days earlier)   

12:13 AM
Today I reminded that the free product $G * H$ has $G$ and $H$ as normal subgroups.
Though, that raises a question... The free product $G * H$ has the direct product $G \times H$ as a factor group. What is the corresponding normal subgroup?
 
@DannyuNDos If $x, y$ are generators of free group on two elements then does $yx\in \langle x\rangle \cdot y$?
It doesn't because then $yx = x^ny$ for some $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ which leads to a contradiction
 
Huh, nevermind.
 
so $G = \langle x\rangle$ and $H = \langle y\rangle$ are not normal subgroups of $G*H$ their free product
 
The source of confusion was this: Given a group $G$ and its subgroup $H$, I tried to find the pushout of the identity map $\mathrm{id}: H \to H$ and the inclusion map $i: H \to G$.
I thought the result would be $(G * H) / H$.
Which is... isomorphic to $G / H$, in my second thought?
And still, $G * H$ should have $G$ and $H$ as factor groups.
Wait, $G / H$ isn't a thing; $H$ might be not normal. Dang.
 
12:36 AM
pushing out along an identity map does nothing
 
12:59 AM
D:
 
 
1 hour later…
2:00 AM
trying to decide if the following sentence is grammatical: What radius circle will a particle (mass m, charge q) follow if moving at speed v in a magnetic field B?
specifically the "what radius circle" bit
 
it seems grammatical to me, but i have no idea. and, there is sometimes a gap between grammatical and good exposition.
this is something ted could have answered, because when he went to school they still taught grammar
 
yeah, grammatical != "reads well"
(i'd hope that being grammatical is a necessary if not sufficient condition but i'm not confident of that)
 
part of the question is an implicit assertion, which is that a particle under those circumstances moves in a circle. if the point is that you don't want the student to prove/investigate/focus on that assertion, i might just state that fact - a particle doing bleh will move in a circle. now you, student, tell me the radius of that circle.
 
yeah, they're given the formula r=mv/qB on the equation sheet, and this is a multiple choice question
 
@Semiclassical it's not $\frac{mv^2}{qB}$?
 
2:06 AM
in the last physics class i took, i think we did some kind of experiment relating to this equation to compute the mass of an electron.
 
no. mv^2/r = qvB, hence r=mv/qB
i'd say something about units but that would require me thinking about Tesla as a unit
 
ah, forgot that qvB was force
 
and life's too short for that
 
2:37 AM
@robjohn ur mom is force!
 
 
2 hours later…
4:42 AM
Which branch does K-theory belong to, algebra or topology?
 
it began in algebraic geometry, in grothendieck's formulation of the riemann roch theorem, but topological K came pretty soon after
why not both
 
So it belongs to geometry then.
 
Too sadge geometry isn't broad enough to be considered the 4th branch.
Analysis, Algebra, and Topology are the three branches, but geometry?
 
4:59 AM
@leslietownes you're pretty good at finding stuff on the internet. Are you a detective?
 
@leslietownes do you have PhD??
 
where is all of this going. what do you really want to know?
 
@leslietownes your profession? But you're not telling me :(
 
i am a lawyer
i guess i forgot to answer that
 
5:06 AM
@leslietownes so you have done math degree then you studied law?
 
yeah, why not
 
I think, you spend more time here than in court haha no offence :)
 
i don't know where you live or how the court system works there, but in the united states, it isn't exactly a badge of honor to have one's clients appearing in court all of the time
there's a good joke in the US about a country lawyer who says "i'm the greatest lawyer, every will i have written has been upheld by the supreme court"
the underlying premise of this joke is that you are f-ing up badly as an attorney if anything you do leads to a supreme court case
 
5:55 AM
I can't find any wiki or nlab articles on tame sets and wild sets. Can someone suggest some references where I can find the definitions and basic stuffs about those?
 
i never saw such things, what field do they arise in?
 
3 manifolds. I don't know if they appear in other fields or not.
 
 
3 hours later…
8:49 AM
@SoumikMukherjee @BalarkaSen
Sounds like parts of what you study
 
topologically tame 3-manifold is a 3-manifold whose interior is homeomorphic to a compact 3-manifold. wild otherwise
I mean interior of a compact 3-manifold
 
 
1 hour later…
10:28 AM
@onepotatotwopotato does 3-manifold mean manifold with boundary here?
 
yes possibly nonempty boundary
 
 
2 hours later…
12:19 PM
@onepotatotwopotato Thanks
 
 
1 hour later…
1:35 PM
@onepotatotwopotato MASHED POTATOES! SWEET POTATOES! BAKED POTATO! POTATO CHIPS!
 
2:31 PM
Um, what would be the opposite of $3y^2-2xy+6x+2$?
 
Hoping to get some help with the following problem:
I've found this and intend to follow the proof: math.stackexchange.com/questions/791411/…
Thus my main question for the chat here is why would my text include the hypothesis about there existing $a,b$ such that $a<b$ and $a<f(a)$ and $b<f(b)$ (it does not appear in the linked question)?
My suspicion is that the existence of these $a,b$ is already implied by the other facts and so is redundant but perhaps there in order to have me do a little less work?
If so, what I am hoping for is help in showing how the existence of such $a,b$ is indeed implied by simply the fact about $f$ being an increasing function from $\Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ (and proeprties of $\Bbb R$, naturally).
 
3:01 PM
@EE18 Otherwise it is not true, f(x)=x+1 is an increasing function without any fixed point
Also you mean b>f(b)
 
I do indeed, yes
Thanks for the comment Soumik
What then am I missing from the linked answer? The hypothesis seems not to be there?
 
@YourLordJoyBoy what do you mean by opposite?
@EE18 That each non empty subset has glb and lub
Which is not true for R
 
Ohhhhh
oooofffff
 
So they added that condition
 
Boundedness, of course
Thanks for setting me straight, much appreciated
 
3:03 PM
Welcome
 
I was wasting lots of time trying to prove that hypothesis unnecessary
Another question for folks
I've just proved Bernoulli's equality $(1+x)^n \geq 1+nx$ for $x \geq -1$ by induction but (as with most induction proofs, they feel mechanical) don't have good intuition for it
I vaguely recall Baby Rudin using it and "proving" it via the binomial theorem somehow
Something to effect of $(1+x)^n = \sum_{k = 0}^n{n \choose k}1^kx^{n-k} = \sum_{k = 0}^n{n \choose k}x^{n-k} ... \geq 1+nx$
But I can't see how one would go through the dots here
Any tips possible?
I guess I want to be able to show that $\sum_{k = 0}^{n-1}{n \choose k}x^{n-k} \geq nx$ but can't quite see how. I guess this leads to induction again so I'm in no better place
 
3:29 PM
Studying the local extrema in $\mathbb{R}$ of $f_{m,n}(x)=x^m(1-x)^n$ for positive integers $m$ and $n$, I noticed that $f_{m,n}(x)=f_{n,m}(1-x)$. Can I use this information to assume something and simplify the study?
 
4:16 PM
@EE18 if $x\ge0$, all terms are positive and you're just omitting all but $2$ of them and it's trivial
not sure this perspective is helpful for $-1\le x\le0$
 
$(1+x)(1+y)\geq 1+(x+y)$ for $x, y\geq -1$ is a very simple observation to make
induction seems to be the most natural
 
What are some very obvious situations where every subgroup of a group is normal
I thought that the alternating subgroup was one but apparently not
in this definition of a near-ring spawned from this answer, how can a group be non-abelian under addition
addition is by definition a commutative binary operation
 
4:38 PM
Hey guys I want to clarify something so If someone could help me would be great

For a function $F(U, x, t): \mathbb{R}^2 \times \mathbb{R} \times[0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$, the following inequality is proving that $F$ is Lipschitz with respect the variable x
$$
\|V\|_{\infty} \leq M \text { and }\|W\|_{\infty} \leq M \Rightarrow\|F(V, \cdot, t)-F(W, \cdot, t)\|_{\infty} \leq k_3\|V-W\|_{\infty}.
$$
have in mind that $U:\mathbb{R} \times[0, \infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$. Can someone helpe with this please, since the $\cdot$ are confusing me or is the inequality only proving Lip
 

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