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12:02 AM
wow it's so quiet here
 
12:29 AM
@TedShifrin I've got a small question.
So if I have a (Weil) divisor $D$ and its associated Cartier divisor is given by $f_i\in \mathcal K^*_X(U_i)$ then $\mathcal O(D)$ is determined by the cocycle $\{U_i,f_i f_j^{-1}\}$, right (not $f_j f_i^{-1}$!)
This is fine, but it runs me into a small problem in a proof later on---consider the canonical bundle of the blow-up of $0\in\Bbb C^{n+1}$
 
Hi all
 
I want to determine $K_{\hat X}$ ($K$ is canonical bundle, $\hat X$ the blowup). Consider the maps $\varphi_i( (x,z)\in \mathcal O(-1)=\hat X)\mapsto (x_0/x_i,\dots,x_n/x_i,z_i)$ which are isomorphisms from the open sets $V_i=\{x_i\neq 0\}$ to $\Bbb C^{n+1}$.
Oh, never mind! I know what happened---but it seems like Huybrechts makes a rather "big" mistake in his proof.
He determines the cocycle of $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$ but pretends like it's that of $K_{\hat X}$
Then he computes the cocycle of $\mathcal O(E)$ where $E$ is the exceptional divisor
Of course it doesn't match, but he pretends that it does by saying that for a divisor, $\mathcal O(D)$ is given by the cocycle $\{U_i,f_jf_i^{-1}\}$
This way, him not dualizing the $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$ and getting the line bundle of a divisor wrong cancels out, so he gets the inverse answers for both
They match, and he pretends like it's okay.
I ran into trouble because I calculated $\mathcal O(D)$'s transition functions correctly, then got the inverse of the ones that were supposed to be $K_{\hat X}$'s...but they're really $\det\mathcal T_{\hat X}$'s.
Hi @MikeMiller
Nice monologue, huh?
 
Hey guys - how's everyone doing?
I'm starting a numerical linear algebra class, and they told me to review some terms I've never heard of. After learning up about them, I'm curious to their applications
 
I'm doing good, I just finished that proof ^^^
 
So I was wondering if I could have a conversation about them right now :) Just to get a little exposure on the topic
@Danu Haha yep, can see that
Are you doing real analysis?
 
12:42 AM
Heh, no
I'm doing complex geometry.
 
ahh~ Well, I'm not even close to that level of mathematics - I'm a filthy CS major ^_^
 
Hi @Fargle
I wanna learn complex analysis
and analytic number theory
they sound like fun subjects to learn
 
@OneRaynyDay So what terms?
 
But anyways, so I learned some interesting matrices, but not sure why they're important
@Danu Just a glossary of them: hermitian matrix, unitary matrix, LU decomposition, Hadamard product and Kronecker product
 
@OneRaynyDay I know a few of those.
 
12:45 AM
I've learned QR decomposition, but never LU. I understand how each of these are created from a matrix along with their definitions, but I don't really understand
 
Hermitian matrix is one that's invariant under transposing + complex conjugating
 
their usefulness in the actual world
right :) Unitary is when you take the hermitian transpose of A, call it A' and $A*A' = I_n$
 
It's the complex analog of symmetric---lots of important theorems that hold for symmetric matrixes in the "real" context hold for Hermitian ones in the complex context.
So things like spectral theorem
 
I see. But when do we actually use complex matrices in the real world? (Other than fourier transforms)
 
Decompositions, I don't know and don't really care.
 
12:46 AM
No idea what that is, but I do see that on my syllabus for later on
 
@OneRaynyDay All of quantum mechanics
 
Ah I see. That's a field I'm completely blind about as well haha
 
@OneRaynyDay Spectral theorem tells you that you have a basis of eigenvectors
So that you can diagonalize
 
oh - I've indirectly learned it then
 
Also about complex matrices---I recall some nice application
You can model some things like resonances in terms of complex eigenvalues of matrices
 
12:47 AM
So basically every square matrix of nxn has n eigenvalues, and those eigenvalues correspond to subspaces in which the eigenvectors exist in?
 
I had a prof. for linear algebra who told us this story of how he worked on trying to fix this train that kept on breaking
 
resonance? like the physics term?
 
XD quantum mechanics fun stuff?
all so interesting
wish I understood more :(
 
It turned out there was a small resonance when riding the tracks, that manifested itself as a tiny nonzero complex eigenvalue of a matrix in his mathematical model
 
ahhh interesting
 
12:49 AM
@OneRaynyDay Now, you have to be careful. Real matrix, or complex matrix?
 
Oh, I suppose for complex.
 
Do you remember why?
 
My previous professor only talked about matrices with real eigenvalues.
Because the characteristic polynomial equation
may have imaginary roots?
Which are in turn the eigenvalues of the matrix
 
So why does it work over complex numbers?
 
Not 100% sure of my answer, feel free to correct me :)
 
12:50 AM
It's the fundamental theorem of algebra---which tells you that any polynomial over $\Bbb C$ has a root.
 
It works over complex numbers because there exists n solutions for a polynomial of ^n when complex numbers are involved?
 
Of course, once you found one root you factor it out and are again left with a (lower order) polynomial, so inductively you find $n$ roots for an order $n$ polynomial
Exactly
 
$\ddot\smile$
 
Oh I see. gotcha :) proof by induction~~ yay
 
$$\ddot{\ddot\smile}$$
4-eyed
 
12:51 AM
Awesome, I feel like I'm getting excited about linear algebra already thanks to you
 
Easy way to remember that this doesn't work over the reals is to take a nontrivial rotation in $\Bbb R^2$ (can you find the exception?).
It has no eigenvectors! This is obvious, because it rotates everything.
 
? Are we solving polynomials/systems of equations with matrices in linear algebra?
 
@SimpleArt Finding the eigenvalues of a matrix is solving a polynomial equation.
 
Oh right - the matrix $\begin{bmatrix}
0 & 1\\
-1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}$ ?
 
Oh, huh, that's interesting.
 
12:52 AM
@OneRaynyDay That'd be a 90 degree rotation.
 
Hm, maybe I'll go learn linear algebra
 
Right - and it would have no eigenvectors since the charpoly(A) is $x^2+1$
 
cya guys
 
cya art!
It's not?
 
$\ddot{\ddot\smile}$
 
12:54 AM
$A^2$ gives the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1 \end{bmatrix}$
 
It's a clockwise rotation
I was thinking anti-clockwise
 
ah yeah
oh god what is going on with my LaTeX
there we go
 
Anyways, I find it much clearer to think geometrically about that example
Now, do you know a nontrivial rotation in $\Bbb R^2$ that nevertheless has eigenvectors?
 
yep!
the $A^2$ matrix I said above?
 
Which is...?
(in terms of rotations)
 
12:56 AM
Simply because given any vector $v$ multiplied by that vector $A$ gives the vector $-v$
It's 180 degrees :)
 
As you can tell, I like to think visually
Right
 
Yeah - no I totally get it. I learned linear algebra by drawing diagrams
 
So only $\operatorname{id}$ and $-\operatorname{id}$
lol... used to having my custom commands :(
 
\id?
 
identity
 
12:58 AM
ahh gotcha :)
Hmm yup - so the later topics talk about linear regression which is fairly simple, and PCA
 
brr, doesn't look like my cup of tea
 
With a slight gloss over online, it seems like PCA chooses a couple eigenvectors from the linear transformation and uses the ones that preserve the original vector the most
 
Principal component analysis (PCA) is a statistical procedure that uses an orthogonal transformation to convert a set of observations of possibly correlated variables into a set of values of linearly uncorrelated variables called principal components. The number of principal components is less than or equal to the number of original variables. This transformation is defined in such a way that the first principal component has the largest possible variance (that is, accounts for as much of the variability in the data as possible), and each succeeding component in turn has the highest variance possible...
 
ah - no problem :)
 
Lots of info
 
12:59 AM
Righty - I find wikipedia, however, to be extremely hard to read(maybe it's just me)
but not as bad as research papers
 
@Danu: your transition functions are, I think, upside down. Remember that you have poles along $D$.
 
@TedShifrin No, wait what?
The equations I'm using to define the exceptional divisor have zeros, not poles.
Perhaps it's best to look at the full proof together
 
morning
 
Anyways, thanks @Danu! You have a nice day :)
I'm off, got some filthy CS assignments to do.
 
It's night (3 AM) here :P
 
1:10 AM
Oh.. 6PM here.
 
@TedShifrin So what I said about the proof: (i) he calculates the cocycle of $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$, not of $K_{\hat X}$. (ii) His rule for getting the cocycle from a divisor is upside down---this is confirmed by the corollary he refers to. Also, once you flipped the cocycle to get that of $K_{\hat X}$, one had better find an excuse to flip the other one too, right? :) Otherwise they won't match.
Do you still think I'm getting it the wrong way around?
Please let me know what you think @Ted---I have to get to sleep now.
I'm playing tennis in 5.5 hours...
sigh
 
 
2 hours later…
2:58 AM
@Danu Fibered product/pullback usually works as an analogue of product over the category whose objects are morphisms X --> A over some fixed base A (X, A belonging to the initial category - this new category IIRC is called the slice category btw).
There's a dual construction known as pushouts which are more abundant in real life, but don't worry about that.
 
@BalarkaSen Know anything about associated bundles?
 
Nah
 
principal bundles?
 
No, really little.
It's probably not going to be of much help to you by asking me about either of those.
 
Maybe
I'm bothered by all the quotients that people take when talking about principal bundles
I think because the actions are free, everything remains Hausdorff
 
3:18 AM
@BalarkaSen well, maybe you can help me
 
what's the problem
 
Let $P$ be a topological manifold, in particular Hausdorff. Let $P\times G\to P$ be a continuous action of a topological group $G$. Suppose that this is "free," i.e. if the action of $g\in G$ has a fixed point, then $g=e$. Then the quotient $P/G$ is Hausdorff.
$P/G$ is given the quotient topology.
 
I don't see a question.
 
I'm asking if the quotient is Hausdorff
 
Ah.
 
3:21 AM
It has to be, but the literature on such quotients is phrased in terms of proper actions, not free actions
I suspect free actions are proper.
 
By proper actions, do you mean properly discontinuous? Free actions of finite groups are such. In general it's false.
 
No, a continuous and proper action gives a Hausdorff quotient.
 
I was literally asking what "proper action" meant. That map $P \times G \to P$ is proper?
 
p times g to p times p
 
No, the map $P\times G\to P\times P, (p,g)\mapsto (pg,p)$ is proper.
 
3:25 AM
OK, gotcha.
 
@MikeMiller You might know: why are associated bundles Hausdorff?
Does quotienting by a free action preserve Hausdorffness?
 
What about Z acting on S^1 by irrational rotations?
Rotate by $2\pi n$ multiple of an irrational number, that is.
The quotient space is certainly very not Hausdorff: the orbit is dense in S^1
 
What even is the quotient of that
each orbit is dense, yeah
 
@0celo7 dunno
 
@BalarkaSen Ok, this brings up an issue. The smooth right action on a principal bundle is by definition free. The base is then the quotient $P/G$.
 
3:33 AM
certainly not something we'd see in real life
 
Why should that be Hausdorff?
 
I don't know a lot about principal bundles, but perhaps that action is more than free?
 
a quotient of any manifold by a free proper action is Hausdorff
 
@MikeMiller Free is redundant there.
But the right action of a principal bundle is not proper, is it?
 
of course it is
 
3:43 AM
@MikeMiller Oh, how so?
 
4:05 AM
I'm not going to write down point set topology in my spare time.
 
@MikeMiller I'm having a really hard time seeing this. Are all free actions proper?
 
I just gave an example where it's not
 
Exactly
The axioms of a principal bundle are: smooth, free right action. base space is the quotient by the action. local trivializations
 
Don't try to get me to write down the proof now.
 
So somehow free right action + local trivializations gives a proper action?
@MikeMiller Is that the gist?
Aha. For any fiber bundle, if the base and fiber are Hausdorff, the total space is Hausdorff.
 
4:12 AM
i have great 70s hair
 
@MikeMiller Do all sphere bundles appear as unit sphere bundle of some vector bundle?
 
straight combed to the side
 
@ForeverMozart hi
did you get your paper published?
 
Ok, this is a fairly reasonable result, now that I look at it
Nothing to do with group actions
 
ã
but when you get there, everything goes wrong
ether is the perfect drug for Las Vegas
 
4:17 AM
what are you on about?
 
you drunk man
 
just quoting a movie
 
Ah, the key is that if the base and fiber are Hausdorff, then each trivialization is Hausdorff.
Any two points are contained in trivializations.
 
aren't you trying to prove that the base is hausdorff
 
@BalarkaSen No, the base is by definition Hausdorff.
I'm trying to prove that the total space of the associated fiber bundle is Hausdorff.
 
4:19 AM
i'll scurry off then
 
@Balarka: You're asking if O(n+1) -> Diff(S^n) is a homotopy equivalence. It's not for n>4.
 
dont scurry
 
At least, I think the base is by definition Hausdorff. Kobayashi-Nomizu clearly state that a p. bundle is a triple $(P,M,G)$ with both $P$ and $M$ manifolds.
So I'll take them both Hausdorff.
 
i am working on an unsolved problem
 
The question is why the orbit space $P\times_GF$ is Hausdorff. It's enough to show that it's a fiber bundle, Hausdorffness follows from $M$ and $F$ being Hausdorff.
 
4:21 AM
@MikeMiller Ah, yes, thanks for pin-pointing the gist of the problem.
 
i can explain briefly if anyone cares
 
Indeed.
@Forever I'd listen to you
 
suppose that $X$ is a connected space
and every connected subset of $X$ is dense in $X$
 
Ok so it's not number theory or nonstandard analysis?
 
(such spaces exist, though they are difficult to construct)
Now,
Is there a necessarily compactification of $X$, every connected subset of which is dense or nowhere dense
this is a famous old problem
 
4:23 AM
interesting
@ForeverMozart what's an example of such a space?
 
^
 
if you leave out nowhere dense, the answer is No
you know the buckethandle continuum?
the Knaster thing
 
yeah
 
there is one inside of that
 
very curious
 
4:27 AM
Is anyone here a connoisseur of fine scribe instruments?
Either of the graphitic or inken variant?
 
@ForeverMozart Isn't there something simpler? Like, [0, 1) quotient (0, 1)? That's two points p, q each of which are dense in the whole space, isn't it?
 
yes but to get a Hausdorff example is more difficult
 
fair enough
 
to have a compactification it must be regular
 
true, true
 
4:34 AM
crazy problem
I could send you my work so far
 
feel free
 
i have a few pages sort of exploring the problem
 
5:05 AM
groovy, hip, and square
lol hippies
 
 
2 hours later…
6:53 AM
if two vectors v,y are linearly independent then does the following condition holds - av +by = 0 for some scalars a and b?
and then a=b=0 has to be true?
 
@0celo7 about the principal bundle stuff you worry about
These notes have all the results in detail
 
Hi @Danu.
 
Hi @Balarka
I gotta go again---playing tennis in half an hour. Bye!
 
Enjoy.
 
7:27 AM
hi can anyone help me understand Cauchy–Schwarz inequality ?
 
What do you want to understand?
 
i have this problem : xy+yz+xz = 3 and i want to show that x+y+z has a global minimum = 3
What am stuggling at is finding the components of the vectors U and V
to use them in Cauchy–Schwarz
 
You should probably think about (x+y+z)^2.
 
Okay thanks ((x+y+z)^2 - ( x^2+y^2+z^2) ) / 2 = xy+yz+xz
but I dont see how to proceed from there
 
Cauchy-Schwarz says (x+y+z)^2 <= 3(x^2+y^2+z^2), doesn't it?
So that means xy + yz + xz <= (3(x^2+y^2+z^2) - (x^2+y^2+z^2))/2 = x^2+y^2+z^2.
The left hand side is 3.
 
7:39 AM
Yes but i showed that 3 <= x^2+y^2+z^2
does it mean 3<= x+y+z ?
 
If x, y, z were all smaller or equal to 1, you'd be done as t >= t^2 whenever t < 1 - then x + y + z >= x^2+y^2+z^2 >= 3 would hold.
So you should probably try to show to attain minimum none of x, y, z can be more than 1.
 
okay thanks alot !
 
@Jacksoja OK, this is easier than that. Note that (x + y + z)^2 = x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2(xy + yz + xz). We proved x^2 + y^2 + z^2 >= 3, use that along with xy + yz + xz = 3 to get (x + y + z)^2 >= 3 + 2*3 = 9. Conclude.
 
8:24 AM
The set of functions {\phi_y(x) = 1 when x = y, and 0 when x \neq y} is an orthonormal basis for l^2. I'm looking for a similar orthonormal basis for L^2. How would I define one?
 
9:00 AM
how do i prove that $xu_x+yu_y$ is the real part to an analytic function if I know that $u$ is the real part to an analytic function?
 
@Lozansky Try to prove $xu_x + yu_y$ is harmonic.
 
i have but i get 3rd order derivatives?
 
Everything should cancel nice and well, given $u_{xx} + u_{yy} = 0$.
 
how about $yu_{yx}$
and $yu_{yxx}$
they wont cancel out, right?
 
$u$ is smooth, so $u_{yxx} = u_{xxy}$ by Clairaut, which is in turn $-u_{yyy}$ using the fact that $u$ harmonic.
All of these manipulations should make them cancel out. I haven't done the computation but it seems straightforward.
Alternatively prove that partial derivatives of harmonic functions are harmonic, and that sum/product of harmonic functions are harmonic. Since $x$ and $y$ are harmonic, that suffices to show $xu_x + yu_y$ is harmonic.
That'd be less tedious.
 
9:16 AM
that sounds tedious as well, showing that a product of harmonic functions are harmonic
i got a tip that $f_x = u_x-iu_y$, how can I use that?
i see that i can then write $xu_x+yu_y = Re(xf_x+yif_x)$
but then i need to know if $xf_x+yif_x$ is analytic
 
Actually, it's not true that product of harmonic functions is harmonic. Sorry about that.
 
np
 
I think you should just write out the Laplacian of $xu_x + yu_y$ explicitly and show it's zero. You can't expect to prove something without getting hands dirty.
 
it's supposedly a trivial problem...
you just had to use some trick
 
show that if $f$ is the holomorphic function of which $u$ is the real part, then you have something like $u_x = Re(f')$ and $u_y = - Im(f')$ ?
which makes $xu_x+yu_y$ into $Re(zf'(z))$
 
9:25 AM
@Lozansky I wouldn't call taking derivatives nontrivial.
But mercio has a good idea.
 
but it's a bit harder to not confuse yourself
 
Shrug. I just took the derivatives right now on a piece of paper.
 
looking at the derivatives and using the harmonicity of $u$ is easier
 
balarky, i forgot to mention that you also had to figure out what function $xu_x+yu_y$ is the real part to
 
@Lozansky Harmonic functions are real parts of hol. functions.
Oh, you mean, explicitly write out the function, not just prove it's one?
 
9:31 AM
yes
 
Then use mercio's approach.
 
but will i get the function explicitly or expressed in terms of $u$ and $v$?
 
$v$ ?
 
$f = u + iv$
 
@Lozansky You'll get it expressed in terms of the function $u$ is the real part of, so of course.
 
9:35 AM
btw when you write $f'$
you mean $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$, right?
 
no I mean $df/dz$
 
how is $f' = u_x+iv_x$ then?
 
that's what you get when you differentiate $f(x+iy) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y)$ with respect to $x$
 
yeah
but $f' = u_x + u_y + iv_x + iv_y$
 
what
no
 
9:39 AM
how do you write $f'$ in terms of derivatives of u and v?
 
????
 
just $u' + iv'$?
 
$f'$ is the derivative of $f$ with respect to its only complex argument
no, $u'$ is ambiguous because it has two arguments
 
yeah but then how do you know $u_x = Re(f')$?
 
because when I differentiate $f(x+iy) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y)$ with respect to $x$
I get $f'(x+iy) d(x+iy)/dx = u_x + iv_x$
and $d(x+iy)/dx = 1$
 
9:42 AM
oh
 
I could also differentiate with respect to $y$
 
i hadnt seen that before
 
@Lozansky If $f$ is holomorphic, it doesn't matter which direction you approach from when you derivate $f$.
 
and I would get $i f'(x+iy) = u_y + iv_y$
 
yes
 
9:43 AM
and so $f'(x+iy) = v_y - i u_y$
 
(and indeed, that's how you derive Cauchy-Riemann equations)
 
and so $u_x =v_y$ and $v_x = -u_y$
 
ah
ok i probably had seen that then :P
 
It's useful to not forget how to differentiate :P That's why I preferred taking derivatives of that thing to prove harmonicity than using tricks.
But yeah, since you need the function it's the real part of, this is more useful.
 
i did arrive at the same result as mercio
 
9:50 AM
@mercio I'm curious, what do blue dragons study in math?
 
$Re(xf'+iyf')$
but i didnt write that as $Re(zf')$
 
hmm I read books on class field theory and modular forms a few years ago
but I'm scared of cohomology
 
thats what you get for not sleeping
 
@Lozansky It happens :)
 
when i express what function $xu_x+yu_x$ is the real part to
 
9:51 AM
@mercio you remind me of another person who lurks this chat, but I think you're not him
 
right now I'm wondering if math.stackexchange.com/questions/1932492/… can be shown with showing there is a polynomial recursion to compute the thing
 
should i do it in terms of $u_x$ or in terms of $f(z)$?
 
modular forms are cool
 
they are strange and magical
 
oh sorry, in terms of $u_x$ and $u_y$
 
9:52 AM
you should express it in terms of $f$
 
oh wait i mean $f'$
maybe that count as in terms of $f$?
 
yes
 
@mercio That's the impression I get, although I haven't studied much about them. I am also fascinated by class field theory :)
 
it counts as "if you know $f$ it's super easy to know everything else"
 
Number theory was my first love. But now I study topology.
 
9:56 AM
also I wish I didn't think "pfft who cares about ellipses" when I was first introduced to elliptic curves
biggest regret right there
 
lol
that's what most people thinks I guess
 
that's pretty unfortunate ;w;
 
yep
 
belarka, heres a funny number theory question
what powers of $2$ give a remainder of $15$ when divided by $17$?
 
That boils down to when $2^m + 1$ is divisible by $17$.
Dunno.
 

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