So if I have a (Weil) divisor $D$ and its associated Cartier divisor is given by $f_i\in \mathcal K^*_X(U_i)$ then $\mathcal O(D)$ is determined by the cocycle $\{U_i,f_i f_j^{-1}\}$, right (not $f_j f_i^{-1}$!)
This is fine, but it runs me into a small problem in a proof later on---consider the canonical bundle of the blow-up of $0\in\Bbb C^{n+1}$
I want to determine $K_{\hat X}$ ($K$ is canonical bundle, $\hat X$ the blowup). Consider the maps $\varphi_i( (x,z)\in \mathcal O(-1)=\hat X)\mapsto (x_0/x_i,\dots,x_n/x_i,z_i)$ which are isomorphisms from the open sets $V_i=\{x_i\neq 0\}$ to $\Bbb C^{n+1}$.
Oh, never mind! I know what happened---but it seems like Huybrechts makes a rather "big" mistake in his proof.
He determines the cocycle of $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$ but pretends like it's that of $K_{\hat X}$
Then he computes the cocycle of $\mathcal O(E)$ where $E$ is the exceptional divisor
Of course it doesn't match, but he pretends that it does by saying that for a divisor, $\mathcal O(D)$ is given by the cocycle $\{U_i,f_jf_i^{-1}\}$
This way, him not dualizing the $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$ and getting the line bundle of a divisor wrong cancels out, so he gets the inverse answers for both
They match, and he pretends like it's okay.
I ran into trouble because I calculated $\mathcal O(D)$'s transition functions correctly, then got the inverse of the ones that were supposed to be $K_{\hat X}$'s...but they're really $\det\mathcal T_{\hat X}$'s.
I'm starting a numerical linear algebra class, and they told me to review some terms I've never heard of. After learning up about them, I'm curious to their applications
I've learned QR decomposition, but never LU. I understand how each of these are created from a matrix along with their definitions, but I don't really understand
It's the complex analog of symmetric---lots of important theorems that hold for symmetric matrixes in the "real" context hold for Hermitian ones in the complex context.
It turned out there was a small resonance when riding the tracks, that manifested itself as a tiny nonzero complex eigenvalue of a matrix in his mathematical model
Of course, once you found one root you factor it out and are again left with a (lower order) polynomial, so inductively you find $n$ roots for an order $n$ polynomial
With a slight gloss over online, it seems like PCA chooses a couple eigenvectors from the linear transformation and uses the ones that preserve the original vector the most
Principal component analysis (PCA) is a statistical procedure that uses an orthogonal transformation to convert a set of observations of possibly correlated variables into a set of values of linearly uncorrelated variables called principal components. The number of principal components is less than or equal to the number of original variables. This transformation is defined in such a way that the first principal component has the largest possible variance (that is, accounts for as much of the variability in the data as possible), and each succeeding component in turn has the highest variance possible...
@TedShifrin So what I said about the proof: (i) he calculates the cocycle of $\det \mathcal T_{\hat X}$, not of $K_{\hat X}$. (ii) His rule for getting the cocycle from a divisor is upside down---this is confirmed by the corollary he refers to. Also, once you flipped the cocycle to get that of $K_{\hat X}$, one had better find an excuse to flip the other one too, right? :) Otherwise they won't match.
Do you still think I'm getting it the wrong way around?
Please let me know what you think @Ted---I have to get to sleep now.
@Danu Fibered product/pullback usually works as an analogue of product over the category whose objects are morphisms X --> A over some fixed base A (X, A belonging to the initial category - this new category IIRC is called the slice category btw).
There's a dual construction known as pushouts which are more abundant in real life, but don't worry about that.
Let $P$ be a topological manifold, in particular Hausdorff. Let $P\times G\to P$ be a continuous action of a topological group $G$. Suppose that this is "free," i.e. if the action of $g\in G$ has a fixed point, then $g=e$. Then the quotient $P/G$ is Hausdorff.
At least, I think the base is by definition Hausdorff. Kobayashi-Nomizu clearly state that a p. bundle is a triple $(P,M,G)$ with both $P$ and $M$ manifolds.
The question is why the orbit space $P\times_GF$ is Hausdorff. It's enough to show that it's a fiber bundle, Hausdorffness follows from $M$ and $F$ being Hausdorff.
@ForeverMozart Isn't there something simpler? Like, [0, 1) quotient (0, 1)? That's two points p, q each of which are dense in the whole space, isn't it?
@Jacksoja OK, this is easier than that. Note that (x + y + z)^2 = x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + 2(xy + yz + xz). We proved x^2 + y^2 + z^2 >= 3, use that along with xy + yz + xz = 3 to get (x + y + z)^2 >= 3 + 2*3 = 9. Conclude.
The set of functions {\phi_y(x) = 1 when x = y, and 0 when x \neq y} is an orthonormal basis for l^2. I'm looking for a similar orthonormal basis for L^2. How would I define one?
$u$ is smooth, so $u_{yxx} = u_{xxy}$ by Clairaut, which is in turn $-u_{yyy}$ using the fact that $u$ harmonic.
All of these manipulations should make them cancel out. I haven't done the computation but it seems straightforward.
Alternatively prove that partial derivatives of harmonic functions are harmonic, and that sum/product of harmonic functions are harmonic. Since $x$ and $y$ are harmonic, that suffices to show $xu_x + yu_y$ is harmonic.
I think you should just write out the Laplacian of $xu_x + yu_y$ explicitly and show it's zero. You can't expect to prove something without getting hands dirty.