The version of Jensen I have in mind is $\log|f(0)| = \sum \log|z_k/r| + \frac1{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} \log|f(re^{i\theta})| d\theta$.
Where $z_k$ are the zeroes of $f$ inside a closed disk in the domain of holomorphicity of $f$.
If I let $f$ to be a polynomial, that tells me $|a_0| = |z_1 \cdots z_n|$ where $a_0$ is the last coefficient of the polynomial.
Is that a workable intuition for Jensen? How do you think about it? (I don't have a particular intuition for the term representing average of $\log|f(z)|$ over the circle of radius $r$)
Mmh, indeed, if you look at it that way, it is a generalisation of Newton's formula.
The average is the value of the solution of the Dircihlet problem at the centre. The solution of the Dirichlet problem is $\log \lvert f/B\rvert$, where $B$ is the (scaled for $r$) Blaschke product formed by the zeros of $f$.
@DanielFischer Um, I am not sure if I understand that. By Dirichlet problem, you mean that extending functions on circles to harmonic functions on disks, yes? How does this relate to this?
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@user1618033 I deleted all the videos, might make new and better ones in future. Today is my birthday.
@BalarkaSen For the boundary values $\log \lvert f\rvert$ on the disk $\lvert z\rvert < r$. $\log \lvert f\rvert$ is subharmonic on that disk (harmonic if $f$ has no zeros there).
@JasperLoy do you just sing or also play instruments ?
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@Huy I can't play any instruments. I also have no formal training in music. I just learn singing on my own, by listening to great singers and trying out different techniques.
E.g., this didn't happen with point-set topology because I applied it frequently in the topology I learnt. Or the (multivariable) analysis/calculus I learnt because I am applying it in differential topology and the more advanced analysis I am learning right now.
@JasperLoy Don't worry much about it, I have similar experience. :-)
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@BalarkaSen I agree that Artin's book is excellent for both algebra and linear algebra. I often wish people know that some algebra books treat linear algebra too.
@MatsGranvik You could rework the conjecture in such a way to accommodate that, though making it precise is probably just as hard: Namely, that the Riemann zeros are equivalent to a system in the same universality class as a Hermitean operator. (Rather than being directly equivalent to some Hermitian operator.)