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12:00 AM
this is from an old one =p
did not figure that out yet
z= 4-4x^2-y^2 , z>0
its a paraboloid
 
@TedShifrin So I do cross product on my vectors, I get the normal vector to the plane
 
Yes @Maks
 
And I apply it on the equation <x-p,n> = 0
 
Yup.
 
That's the normal equation right ?
thz
 
12:06 AM
@TedShifrin can you please tell me what is the surface ?
i know its a paraboloid but from my picture nothing exists for z>0
i got it 0<z<4
 
 
1 hour later…
1:39 AM
If I am asked to prove that $g\in Bil(VxV)$ do I just prove bilinear?
 
1:50 AM
hey @KajHansen
 
Hey there
 
just want to verify something with you.
So I am computing the galois group of $x^8 - 2$
I computed the splitting field to be $\mathbb{Q}((2)^{1/8},i)$ and this is degree 16 extension ok ?
 
That sounds reasonable
I suspect the Galois group will come out to be $D_8$. Confirm that for yourself though; I could be wrong
 
let us denote it by $\mathbb{K}$. Consider $\tau((2)^{1/8} \mapsto (2)^{1/8}\omega$ and fixes i, where $\omega$ is 8th root of unity, and $\sigma_1$ complex conjugation. I verified that $H = <\tau_1>$ and $K = <\sigma_1>$ generate this group.
 
I don't think so @Kaj, but I don't know for sure.
Let's see. What's the splitting field?
 
1:56 AM
Since the index of H is normal. Then let $G = H \rtimes K$
 
I actually was wrong. I Googled it out of laziness @Ted :P
 
now we have to see how is our semi direct product behave.
$\sigma_1 \tau_1 \sigma_1^{-1} = \tau_1^7$
 
I count on you to be my algebra czar, @Kaj.
 
So $G = <a ,b : a^8 = 1 = b^2, bab^{-1} = a^7>$ right ?
 
Karim: "Since the index of $H$ is normal"?
 
1:58 AM
Since the index of H is 2
so it is normal
 
Definitely the first part @Adeek, let me think about bab^{-1} = a^7
 
$\sigma_1 \tau_1 \sigma_1^{-1}(2^{1/8}) = \sigma_1 \tau_1 ( (2)^{1/8}) = (2)^{1/8}\sigma_1( \sqrt{2}/2 + i * \sqrt{2}/2) = (2)^{1/8}*(\sqrt{2}/2 - i*\sqrt{2}/2) = (2)^{1/8}\omega^7$.
$\sigma_1 \tau_1 \sigma_1^{-1}(i) = i$ so we get it is $\tau^7$ right ?
want to verify my calculation
 
Let's see, $\sigma^{-1}$ fixes $2^{1/8}$
Then $\tau$ sends it to $\omega 2^{1/8}$
Then $\sigma$ sends it to $\omega^7 2^{1/8}$
Yeah
 
okay cool
 
Hmm, so it actually is dihedral?
 
2:03 AM
This is why I thought it was $D_8$ @TedShifrin. It looks like $\tau$ is the rotation subgroup and $\sigma$ is acting as a reflection
But an MSE post says otherwise :S
 
Don't make me work.
 
but this isn't the presentation for $D_8$ @KajHansen
 
Aren't presentations not unique though?
 
yeah I guess
 
Huh, slow down. I'm slow.
 
2:05 AM
Also, that looks like the dihedral presentation :S
 
Yeah, doesn't it?
 
$bab^{-1} = a^{-1} \implies ba = a^{-1}b$
 
I just saw that mse post
the guy who posted it made a mistake
 
goes back to sleep
 
the guy who posted the answer made a mistake
 
2:05 AM
Which is right. Dihedrals have that sort of "anti-commutivity" where you pick up an inverse
 
Ayup.
 
also $a^{-1} = a^7$
 
mhm
 
so that makes sense
 
Another source is saying it's the semidirect of $\mathbb{Z}_8$ with $\mathbb{Z}_2$
Can't open it though
 
2:07 AM
2
Q: Galois group for $x^8 - 2$

TobiasMy textbook asked me to find the Galois group $G$ for $x^8 - 2$. Ok, so the roots of $x^8 - 2$ are $e^{2\pi ik/8} * 2^{1/8}:0 \le k < 8$, by my calculations, so the splitting field is $\Bbb{Q}(2^{1/8}, i)$ and the Galois group is generated by $f: 2^{1/8} \to e^{i\pi/4} * 2^{1/8}, i \to i$ and $g:...

 
This is semidirect.
 
$D_8$ is a semi direct product @KajHansen
the guy who posted solution made a mistake
it is not $f^3$ it is $f^7$.
 
I've actually never been introduced to the semidirect in classes and such. I always have to look it up on wiki to remind myself. :/
 
It is very useful.
 
OK, @Kaj. mr. algebra, you need to learn that :P
 
2:09 AM
On it tonight @Ted
 
all we do in our class is semidirect product this semidirect product that
 
LOL, hugs @Kaj
 
hahaha
 
First step to representation theory :)
Yikes.
 
ok interesting $Aut(\mathbb{K} / Q(\sqrt{-2})$ is $\mathbb{Q}_8$
I want to prove this
 
2:10 AM
Does this generalize easy to the Galois group of $x^n - a$?
I mean, complex conjugation is always going to be available
 
where K is the splitting field that we began with.
 
Now that you remind me, Karim, I think this is an exercise in my book.
 
really ?
 
And it seems like $\sqrt[n]{a} \mapsto \omega \sqrt[n]{a}$ will be an automorphism
 
should I approach this directly ?
or should I use something else ?
I mean compute the order of $\mathbb{K} / Q(\sqrt{-2})$ etc
 
2:12 AM
You could look at intermediate fields/subgroups and see they're all normal.
 
I see
I have to probably look @ the lattice of subgroups for $D_8$ ?
 
Only the part corresponding to the extension you're talking about, Karim.
 
I think we can achieve $Q_8$ by some semi direct product let me remember which one.
 
Hi chat.
 
@Fargle!! You owe me a re-email.
 
2:14 AM
@Ted, just know that wasn't the first time I forgot an attachment. I sent it to you.
 
Oh.
 
:D
 
I see @TedShifrin so I have to see that extension and the subgroup generated by that extension and see what it is
 
I feel like problem 1 didn't really bear inclusion, but, hey.
 
What is $K$?
 
2:15 AM
No, but maybe it's bared inclusion.
 
$\mathbb{K} = \mathbb{Q}( (2)^{1/8},i)$
 
so $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-2}) = \mathbb{Q}( i * \sqrt{2})$
 
@TedShifrin This is a most appreciable pun.
 
appreciable or appreciated? :D
 
2:16 AM
Find a polynomial over $\mathbb{Q}$ with quaternions Galois group
 
that is brute force way to do it I think I can do it constructively
 
Both, but only because I like puns.
 
@Fargle: Re #23, usually you would just choose balls of radius $1/k$. But "unwieldy"? You need to use triangle inequality to check details, but yes, you have it
 
Hello all, doing some studying and not really sure how to prove bilinear for something such as $x_\alpha: (v,v')\mapsto x(\alpha(v), \alpha(v'))$.
 
what are the normal subgroups of $D_8$ is it just the cyclic group ?
 
2:20 AM
@TedShifrin That's an easy check by my construction, as the $|q_k - x| \leq \sum_{i=1}^k r_i < r$.
 
there are many :S
 
No reason not to write it in.
 
Maybe I missed details, @Fargle. There weren't any.
 
@TedShifrin Good to know there weren't hiccups. I don't know why the 1/k construction didn't occur to me--this one just felt right, diagrammatically.
I certainly did a lot of literal hand-waving and drawing of imaginary open balls in the air while proving it...
 
BTW, @Fargle: I'll look more carefully tomorrow. But if you're gonna LaTeX, you need to know that you do `` and then ''.
 
2:25 AM
@TedShifrin Wait, where?
 
wherever.
 
Oh, I see where you meant. Thanks, I never knew that one.
 
I'm a regular fount of trivia.
 
I felt proud of the brevity of my proof for the last problem I did. But I think that's just the topology course helping me out.
 
Of course it is.
Let's get on to analysis :P
 
2:27 AM
Oh boy, sequence time.
 
(You can study sequences in greater generality with topology @Fargle) ;)
 
He already done did that ... but not the estimates part of series :)
 
@TedShifrin Somehow that ellipsis makes it more intimidating.
 
Good :D
Heya DogAteMy
 
2:30 AM
Heya @PVAL
DogAteMy: sorry if it upsets you that @Balarka is now copying your name :P
 
user228700
Hi, everyone :-)
 
@Kaumudi hi
 
user228700
I've a very quick homework-tsy question.
 
user228700
How am I to solve $e^{-\lambda t} = 0$ ?
 
2:32 AM
$e^{\rm anything}$ is never zero.
 
That'll do it
 
Well, $e^{-\infty}$ is zero in the limit (where by that I really mean $\lim_{x\to-\infty}e^x$)
but that doesn't really count
(It's a bit interesting how the $e^x=\lim_{N\to\infty}(1+x/N)^N$ definition kind of implies that there's an infinite-degree zero at $-\infty$.)
 
Can $\exp(x)$ have a root in the octonians?
 
user228700
 
I guess that means $f'$ is never zero?
Or you made a mistake somewhere
@DHMO No idea; doubt it.
(I don't think it does in the quaternions, at least.)
 
user228700
2:37 AM
Actually, no, $R$ may be equal to $\lambda N_\circ$ but that still doesn't give me the correct answer :-|
 
user228700
Alright, thank you :-)
 
@AkivaWeinberger but the octonions have zero divisor
by the way, $\exp(x)$ does not make sense in a non-commutative non-associative algebra like octonion, so what am I asking?
 
user228700
You know, substituting $e^ {-\lambda t} = 0$ in the function directly does give me the correct answer!
 
user228700
(I don't got any terms of $t$ that aren't associated with $e$ as $e^{-\lambda t}$. So really, I don't need to solve for $t$ in the first place but e^{-\lambda t}$ does equal 0 :-/)
 
2:43 AM
@AkivaWeinberger i found a solution to the puzzle thing
 
I saw above
I didn't analyze the solution or anything
@DHMO Really? What about the power series?
 
all solutions have an odd sequence length
obviously
 
@AkivaWeinberger Well, $z^3$ is not even consistent, since $(zz)z \ne z(zz)$
 
Oh right
But I thought that the octonions satisfied that anyway? @DHMO
 
@AkivaWeinberger satisfied what?
 
2:48 AM
Even though they're non-associative in general, I think that they satisfy $z(zz)=(zz)z$
 
im confused about the dual projective plane
whats the point of defining a copy of $\mathbb{P}^2$ when you can just use $\mathbb{P}^2$ itself?
 
@AkivaWeinberger no idea
 
3:08 AM
I have a conjecture. If a number $n$ can be written as a sum of two squares and is not a multiple of 4, then the equation $x^2-ny^2=-1$ has integer solutions.
 
@Sophie just found a counterexample
$n=34=5^2+3^2$
 
yes wrong statement
 
?
 
I'm trying to prove if $n$ is a prime congruent to 1 mod 4 then $x^2-ny^2=-1$ has solutions, and then I generalised it wrong
mathoverflow is so weird. Often you'll find answers by Gowers or Terence Tao
 
3:29 AM
@Ted: wait, do I really need the triangle inequality? I've constructed a (finite) descending chain of neighborhoods $N_r(x) \supset N_{r_2}(q_1) \supset N_{r_3}(q_2) \supset \cdots \supset N_{r_{k-2}}(q_{k-1}) \ni q_k$.
@AkivaWeinberger They in fact satisfy $(xx)y = x(xy)$ and $(yx)x = y(xx)$. The sedenions do not, but they do satisfy the property you stated.
 
4:13 AM
Hey guys have a topology conceptual question here:
Suppose I have a 3 element set $\{a,b,c\}$ wit the following topologies:
$$\tau_1=\{\emptyset,\{a\},\{b\},\{c\},\{a,b\},\{a,c\},\{b,c\},\{a,b,c\}\}$$
$$\tau_2=\{\emptyset,\{b\},\{a,b\},\{b,c\},\{a,b,c\}\}$$
$$\tau_3=\{\emptyset,\{a,b,c\}\}$$

Is the following interpretation correct (omitting the description about the emptyset):
For $\tau_1$ all elements form an open set, and no two elements are considered near to each other in this topology
For $\tau_2$, b form an open set, while a,c and a,b form two other open sets. Therefore a and c are c
 
4:30 AM
@Secret I am not sure how you would formally define "close to each other". But there exists notions of topologically distinguishable points and separated points. See Wikipedia article on separation axioms.
I have also reposted your message in general topology chat room. (Although it is not sure that it improve chances of getting a response too much. The room seems to be rather inactive.)
 
@MartinSleziak I think Secret is taking the convention that "close" = "topologically indistinguishable".
@Secret For $\tau_2$, as a minor nitpick, it'd be a and c as "close", but no other pair.
 
@Fargle Well, a and c are topologically distinguishable in $\tau_2$, but Secret calls them close.
 
@MartinSleziak Separated then? I'm not strong on these definitions myself.
 
@DHMO no. purely imaginary unit octonions are square roots of -1, so de Moivre's formula works for them. that is, any octonion x is of the form r+su where r and s are real and u is a pure imaginary unit octonion, in which case exp(x)=exp(r)(cos(s)+sin(s)u) just like with complex numbers.
 
Not being strong on definitions is the reason why I added a link. (I had to look there myself.)
 
4:37 AM
@DHMO octonions do not have zero divisors
 
I mean, yeah. >_>
 
@arctictern except that not every octonion x is of the form r+su where r and s are real and u is a pure imaginary unit octonion
@arctictern they do have zero divisors
 
@DHMO no, octonions have no zero divisors. and yes every octonion is of that form.
 
@arctictern $1 + e_1 + e_2$? Or are you calling $\frac{e_1 + e_2}{\sqrt{2}}$ a unit octonion for these purposes?
 
@Fargle yes, $(e_1+e_2)/\sqrt{2}$ is a unit octonion
not just "for these purposes" though. it clearly satisfies the definition of being a unit octonion.
 
4:38 AM
@MartinSleziak O sorry I made a typo, I mean a,b are close together and b, c are close together but not a, c
 
@arctictern I just wasn't sure what you meant by "unit"--whether you meant literally some $e_i$, or just an octonion $x$ with $|x| = 1$
 
"Two points x and y are separated if each of them has a neighbourhood that is not a neighbourhood of the other; that is, neither belongs to the other's closure." In $\tau_2$ closure of b is the whole set. So no point is separated from b.
a and c are separated
So Fargle might be correct in guessing that what you mean by close is the same as not separated.
 
now, sedenions have zero divisors, but even they are power-associative so powers make sense, and the thing I said about octonions having the form r+su and u being a square root of -1 still applies to sedenions IIRC so once again exp has no roots
 
@arctictern you're right
@Fargle I think he means $x^2 = -1$, right
 
@DHMO He's not requiring that. Just that it have no real part and norm 1.
 
4:44 AM
by "unit octonion" I mean $|x|=1$, and by "is a square root of $-1$" I mean $x^2=-1$
an octonion is a square root of -1 if and only if it is purely imaginary and has unit norm
 
Don't drink and MSE, kids
bows out
 
Since I am trying to get the bounty room going, perhaps a reasonable thing could be to promote it here. So here is link to the relevant meta post and here is the room.
 
5:05 AM
if S={a,b} is an open set, does it mean the set actually does not contain the elements a and b, i.e. $a,b \not\in S$? , analogous to how for reals in the usual topology (0,1) does not actually contain 0 and 1?
 
@Secret it is not possible for a set to not contain its elements
dunno why you would think that
best guess for why you would think that is that no isolated point a in a subspace can be an interior point
in Euclidean space specifically
but in topology, "open" doesn't have to mean anything other than "one of the sets we have in this collection of subsets that we decided to call open" (where the collection satisfies some axioms)
 
@Secret The notation $S=\{0,1\}$ and $S'=(0,1)$$ is different. They are two completely different sets.
 
Well, the interval (0,1) in reals in the usual topology has elements x between 0 and 1, but not 0,1. Knowing that topology is a generalisation of the concept, I initially thought {a,b} being open will mean something similar

(slow typing, pretty much what I said above is what you have guessed)
I see
 
However, if you are looking for somtheing similar to set $S=(0,1)$ and point $p=0$, you can define in any topological space the notion of boundary of a set, defined as $\partial S=\overline S\setminus S$. In this case $0\notin S$ but $0\in\partial S$.
 
ok
 
5:14 AM
@Secret what does "between" mean in an arbitrary topological space? intervals generalize to partially ordered sets, but not really topological spaces
 
BTW it is your first encounter with general topology Secret? What subject are you currently studying - analysis, multivariable calculus, real analysis, metric spaces, functional analysis, ... ?
 
Denote $n\mathbb{R}\equiv \{nq : q\in\mathbb{R}\}$. So, $\forall n\in\mathbb{R}\setminus \{0\}\, :,\mathbb{R}=n\mathbb{R}$. Correct? Just need an affirmative/negative response for now.
 
yes
 
and Arctic, I am still kinda going through Munkres (roughly 1 month ago for 4 weeks) and trying to make sense how a topology define the notion of two points next to each other.

I have previsouly done multivariable calculus in my year 2, but yes this is the first time I get into general topology via munkres, and I also see notions of covers and topological groups when I read through group theory stuff (will be going to lie groups soon, which is why I am trying to get my topology knowlege betteR)
 
BTW i am not sure whether finite spaces are ideal to gain some intuition. (It depends a bit whether you are interested in non-Hausdorff spaces too.)
Anyway, since you say that you want to somehow define when two points are in some sense close to each other, wouldn't defining points to be closed if they are not separated be something similar to what you have in mind.
 
5:22 AM
I am interested in all kinds of topology to better understand the concept, hausdoff and non hausdoff. (Strictly speaking, I have a slightly higher interest in non hausdoff because I have some interest in CTCs in general relativity, and time travel in general, which often make use of non hausdoff spaces if I recall)
 
If your main interest in general topology is because you will need it later for stuff like functional analysis, algebraic topology, differential geometry (this one might be a reasonable guess, since you mentioned Lie groups), then you can safely say that only Hausdorff spaces will matter in the stuff you will need there.
Ok, before I finished typing previous comment, you already posted yours, which basically answer it :-)
 
@MartinSleziak I am suspecting that, I kinda have this thought yesterday when maths chat talked about the padic numbers. (please wait when I upload the pics to see if I understood correcrly, I am too slow in typing)
 
I do not know what CTC is. Google suggests closed timelike curve. I have never heard of such thing before. (Well, but I am not a physicist.)
 
hey
i have a question
anyone know about numerical methods for solving stochastic ODEs?
 
So using close=not separated, is it intuitively speaking those points are like located within nondisjointed sets?
and yes CTC=closed timelike curve
 
5:26 AM
@Secret A suggestion. Since it seems that several conversations are going here at the same time, perhaps we could move to general topology chat room? So that several people talking about different topics do not talk over each other - it is more difficult to read conversations this way.
I have some stuff to do, but I guess I can stay an chat for 30 minutes or maybe a bit more.
So what do you say about continuing there?
 
ok moving to general topology chat room
 
Okay, @arctictern. Sets $S$ and $T$ are equal iff $\forall x : (x\in S\Leftrightarrow x\in T )$. I should prove the earlier statement according to this definition.
Well, this is trivial. :)
 
@Secret In $\tau_1$, $\{ a,b,c \}$ are close to each other, up to some given 'error', while $\{ a,b \}$ are also close to each other in a sense different to how they are close to $c$, i.e. $a$, $b$ and $c$ can approximate one another up to some given error, which is how you interpret $\{ a,b,c \}$, but $a$ can also approximate $b$ up to some other given error, which is how you interpret $\{ a,b \}$, where the notion of error is unspecified, e.g. in a metric space you can use a distance function
@Secret in $\tau_2$, $b$ is a number you know exactly, like, say, a rational number, that can be written down, while $a, c$ might be irrational numbers, you can't write down and don't know the exact value of, e.g. $\sqrt{2}$, so, $\{a,b,c\}$ means we interpret $b$ as close to $a$ and $c$ up to some given level of error, while $\{b,c\}$ means that $b$ and $c$ are close to each other up to some other given level of error and hence approximate one another, same with $\{a,b\}$,
while $\{b\}$ means we can approximate $b$ with all elements in that set, namely $b$, it is close to itself up to some given level of accuracy.
Said another way, topology is the language of approximation
 
5:48 AM
4
Q: Get n from sum of integers from 1 to n

SolarBearI know very well that the sum of integers from $1$ to $n$ is $\dfrac{n\times(n+1)}2$. What I'm interested in today, and cannot find a solution for, is performing the opposite operation. Let $m = \dfrac{n^2 + n} 2$. Knowing the value of $m$, how do I figure out the value of $n$? I could easily pr...

 
6:05 AM
guys I was wondering what would our universe look like if it had countably infinite dimensions like $C(\mathbb{R})$ or uncountably infinite like $\mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{R}}$
 
@DHMO heh, slightly more complicated for sum of first $n$ squares. cubes are easier though
 
@Brody I don't think so. For the first $n$ squares, it would be $\lfloor\sqrt[3]{3m}\rfloor$. For the first $n$ cubes, it would be $\lfloor\sqrt[4]{4m}\rfloor$.
 
@TedShifrin thanks I'm looking into those books
 
@DHMO not the inverse in mind but yeah, lol
 
@Brody Question: does this pattern continue?
 
6:16 AM
Not sure
 
@Brody I've checked the first 100 exponents
for 1^m + 2^m + ... + 100^m
 
Nice @DHMO
I've also checked (but for fourth powers, up to 1^m + ... + 3^m)
 
I've checked until 152, and then it is too big
 
I'm guessing it's true then (and in that case probably known)
but I'm interested in the proof
 
So the question is, is it true that $\displaystyle k^{n+1} \le (n+1)\sum_{i=1}^k i^n < (k+1)^{n+1}$
@Brody I think I have a proof
$\displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{k-1} i^n < \int_0^k x^n \ \mathrm dx < \sum_{i=1}^k i^n$
and then the result follows
@Brody
 
6:32 AM
Was phrasing the question also but with $n$ and $k$ exchanged, so that was a bit confusing initially @DHMO
 
sorry
 
lol, no worries. am looking at the proof
 
I so love this song-In A Testube - Many Things
I've been listening to this on repeat for the last day
 
@DHMO Pretty rusty on this (like anything). How do you establish the bounds for the integral? And what of the case of equality?
 
@Brody well, it is based on the fact that $\int_{i}^{i+1} i^n < \int_{i}^{i+1} x^n < \int_{i}^{i+1} {i+1}^n$
 
6:49 AM
@DHMO sigh I don't know what that means, sorry
Your result is likely correct. I'm just too slow for this
 
should put dx in all the integrals and ()s around the i+1
 
@arctictern oops
 
Hey guys, in the general topology room, after a lengthy time spent on digesting, I got a very narrow question about point set topology

The whole thing is long thus I will just highlight the gist here:
Using what bolteppa said that topology is a language of approximation
In short:
1. Why are we interested in asking for a notion of nearness if "either one or the other notion of nearness" holds (i.e. why do we care about the union of open sets in a topology?)
2. Why this common notion will result in a notion of nearness that somehow make two points close together? (e.g. consider {b} U {c}={b,
 
I don't understand either of those questions.
 
who can help me on measure theory ?
?
 
7:06 AM
yesterday, by Astyx
But I am still shocked that for some people, $(\Bbb N, +)$ is not a monoid
Is this a quip about the definition of $\Bbb N$?
 
@Brody yes
 
about whether or not it includes 0
 
I have this : "$u_n\rightarrow u~\text{in}~L^{\Phi}(\mathbb{R}^N)$ i.e., $\int_{\mathbb{R}^N}\Phi(|u_n-u|)dx\rightarrow0$
by measure theory, given $\varepsilon>0$ there exists $R>0$ such that $$\int_{B^c_R(0)}\Phi(|u_n|) dx\leq \varepsilon, ~\text{and}~ \int_{B^c_R(0)}\Phi(|u_n|) dx\leq \varepsilon$$"
how to find this
 
hey @arctictern
 
heh, clever @DHMO
 
7:16 AM
can you check my question @arctictern math.stackexchange.com/questions/2042720/…
 
the quip I mean @DHMO
 
Someone help me ?
 
Something's weird with that @Adeek. If this is true, Q_8 should be a subgroup of D_8. But I don't think it is :S
 
I'd compliment the proof @DHMO, but i dun ged it
 
At least I think so. Every automorphism of $K$ that fixes $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{-2})$ also fixes $\mathbb{Q}$ itself...
 
7:20 AM
$(\Bbb P,\times)$ was once a monoid. Not anymore!
$\Bbb P$ denoting the set of primes, oc
 
@Brody What is $\Bbb P$?
 
@Brody: It was Astyx picking on my having $0\notin\Bbb N$.
 
sorry, it's not great notation
 
@Brody It was never a monoid
 
darn @DHMO
Oh, there's closure required
This is why I need to learn some algebra
 
7:23 AM
@Brody yes, it's almost never mentioned because it is implied in the operator, but proofwiki has it
(advertisement for proofwiki again)
 
@KajHansen yeah we did a mistake earlier
it should be different group @KajHansen I computed its presentation
 
What was it @Adeek ?
What is it?
 
It is $G = < a, b : a^8 = b^2 = 1, bab^{-1} = a^3>$
some weird group.
 
@DHMO the local marketing has pushed me to like the site tbh
 
we did a mistake earlier in computing the automorphisms.
 
7:25 AM
@Brody how?
 
@KajHansen do you have DF with you on the pc ?
 
I have IRL copy
 
@DHMO the mentions of it in chat here and the easy accessibility of its content drew me to it
 
@Kaj: This was a problem in my book. :P
 
@Brody I see
 
7:26 AM
Copied D&F I see @Ted ;)
 
@KajHansen see page 577
 
e.g. tried using it last time with ordinal stuff. it's all succinct and well-organized @DHMO
 
Cool, I'll make a note of it @Adeek
 
I don't know if Dummit and Foote was around that far back :P
 
I will get a copy of your book @TedShifrin during the break I want to work out many algebra problems
 
7:27 AM
It's too low level for you, Karim
 
@Brody yes
 
I guess I can go through DF and allufi
allufi is pretty good
 
So @Ted, the arachnids only invaded my home for that one night. I think it was the sudden rain after a long, long dry spell here in GA
my sanity was spared
as was my life
 
Not that you ever had much sanity ...
 
to my perception, I'm plenty sane
 
7:30 AM
Well, duh
 
heh, that's enough for me
 
I keep hearing the word ramified
what the hell is that @TedShifrin
 
It's like a mapping that drops rank somewhere
 
@Brody You can use a diagram
 
I see
 
7:34 AM
@DHMO ah, I see the relation now. thanks
what about equality? or is that immaterial?
 
@Brody equality is a utopian ideal
there has never been, never is, and never will be equality in anywhere in the world
@Brody I'm just kidding; equality is when there is no rectangles
 
@DHMO some/many political philosophers might disagree, but sure
 
@Brody well, who?
 
@DHMO the overly-optimistic liberalists. I'm sure they're out there
 
@Brody and why should I give any shit about them?
 
7:41 AM
actually, at total equality the objective of utilitarianist liberalism fails completely...
In economics, utility is a measure of preferences over some set of goods (including services: something that satisfies human wants); it represents satisfaction experienced by the consumer of a good. The concept is an important underpinning of rational choice theory in economics and game theory: since one cannot directly measure benefit, satisfaction or happiness from a good or service, economists instead have devised ways of representing and measuring utility in terms of measurable economic choices. Economists have attempted to perfect highly abstract methods of comparing utilities by observing...
hey look... math
 
economic isn't math
 
click the link
 
that's bullshit maths
 
maybe, maybe not
 
@Brody OH MY GOD is there at last another right wing member on here other than me? :O
 
7:48 AM
@SoumyoB there's a misunderstanding :/
 
yes now that I read the link, I supposed there is
or was
 
nothing I've said so far should relate to my political leanings. just mentioning some sociopolitical philosophy stuffs
 
lol I just read liberalism being under attack and jumped to a conclusion, my bad
 
politics is a hot mess
political belief is a hotter shitworm of mess
 
it's ok. I'm confident there are others you can identify with who come along here @SoumyoB
 
7:52 AM
If I ever move to America the first piece of clothing I'll buy there is a MAGA cap
 
that was a nice video @DHMO
@SoumyoB is your nationality not American?
 
@KajHansen do you have an example of a field K $\subset \mathbb{C}$ but not of $\mathbb{R}$ such that $Aut(K / F) = \mathbb{Z}_4$ ?
 
@Brody nope
 
where F is some base ground field.
 
@SoumyoB seems like a lot of zeal for a non-American. no offense intended oc, just find it kinda funny
 
7:56 AM
@Brody if the atmospheric pressure and temperature on the surface of the planet was distinct everywhere else but two points on the planet, and one of those points was Easter Island, the Chilean island, the other point would be in my country
I presume you wanted to know my nationality
 
Yes @Adeek
Oh wait, I don't know
 
don't worry @Brody I'm Right Wing, I'm hardly ever offended since I'm all for freedom of speech (unless of course it's about Harambe) ;)
 
@SoumyoB not particularly, but now that it's mentioned...
idk. lots of countries on the same latitude interval
 
@Adeek, $f(x) = x^5 - 1$. $\text{Gal}(f) \cong \mathbb{Z}_4$.
 
Hello!! I want to check if the series $a_k=\frac{1}{\sqrt{k(n-k)}}$ converges to $0$ or not, how could I do that? What criterium should I use?
 
7:59 AM
hmm why ?
 

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