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1:08 AM
@Chris'ssistheartist Blimey, I have to agree with you there. =)
5
 
 
3 hours later…
 
1 hour later…
5:13 AM
@PedroTamaroff "blimey" is so...British ;-)
3
 
 
2 hours later…
7:23 AM
@Chris'ssistheartist when i was young, the only thing that pushd me ahead to learning and to not be deceived by peaople who kept reminding me how much i was stupid and stubborn and barin-rigid and not adapted to learn etc... this book amazon.fr/Lintelligence-sapprend-Dietrich-Claude/dp/B0000DO2R7 which my father brough from france, that i was been reading in 10 yo, helped me to go all straightforward and ignore these lame comments , it means in english (intelligence is learnt)
4
all the articles in internet telling that smartness is aquiered from someone's roots are lies, i dont even bother to read em
5
 
 
2 hours later…
10:02 AM
@Agawa001 Is there a version in English?
Books have the power to change minds! Just to read the proper books. :-)
Also the same thing with people, to meet in life the right people that help you grow in your way and reach the success.
"Students' beliefs or perceptions about intelligence and ability affect their cognitive functioning and learning."
(Top 20 psychological principles for teachers)
Well, this is true in general, if you're not careful with yourself and consider you unable of doing things, then things happen like that. Maybe you don't even try to do anything.
Even when you feel the hell is going to eat you alive, you don't have the right to give up yourself, you're so special, push yourself, crawl, never give in. Uncover the brilliance, the greatness within yourself.
 
10:31 AM
@Rigor On the contrary, any road to learning is royal if you're willing to learn.
hi @SamuelYusim
 
and work at it @BalarkaSen
 
user147690
Looks like I'll get that alg top reading course in 6 months @BalarkaSen and perhaps a representation theory reading course
 
oh, good.
 
user147690
@BalarkaSen Is Hatcher a great book, or just the fact it is free is the reason people use it?
 
@AlexClark I think Hatcher is an extremely good book, although opinions seem to vary person-to-person.
 
user147690
10:44 AM
@BalarkaSen From what you have said in the past, it seems like it is a good that you have to be extremely tenacious with it. Is there a more verbose text that is good?
 
Hatcher is pretty verbose, so not sure what you want here.
I usually recommend people to learn basic algebraic topology from Munkres before jumping to Hatcher, as Hatcher is a little bit advanced for beginners on topology.
indeed, Hatcher is actually a graduate text
 
user147690
Wow Hatcher really is longer than I thought. I tried to read some yesterday and found myself unable to concentrate.
 
Hatcher talks a lot. That's precisely what the issue is with many people (not with me, though)
I recommend you start learning some algebraic topology from Munkres.
it really won't be motivating enough to start on cell complex and all the point-set details about homotopy extension property. fundamental group is a lot more fun.
 
user147690
Will do, thanks. I have more free time than at any other point in the semester atm.
 
user147690
I am finding functional analysis really hard honestly
 
10:51 AM
really? I thought you had to work a lot on this semester?
 
user147690
Oh I have been working non-stop, but I have a 4 day lull right now I have been trying to get ahead in, but when I run out of motivation I like to move to different math
 
user147690
Just handed in a 16 page assignment yesterday
 
16 page!!
 
@AlexClark Wow, that is a big assignment.
 
user147690
I'll screenshot the most painful(and boring of the pages)
 
user147690
10:53 AM
There was a stupid matrix computation page
 
That is almost as long as most of my papers (longer than some of them even)
 
lol
 
yo @BalarkaSen, how's it going?
 
(actually there is a 50/50 split between those it is longer than and those longer than 16 pages)
 
user147690
Prepare for boring::: imgur.com/om1mf4f
 
user147690
10:55 AM
Behold the killing form of $\mathfrak{gl}(2)$ :P
 
oh boy
 
just looking at that makes me $M_{ad}$
 
user147690
Hahahaha
 
@AlexClark You do realize that one could just look at a non-zero scalar matrix to show that the Killing form is degenerate, right?
 
user147690
What?
 
10:56 AM
@Samuel I'm fine, I think I found a geometric interpretation of Nakayama's lemma. what about you?
 
doing alright. haven't done much math in the last few days, personally
 
user147690
@TobiasKildetoft How would you have found the killing form though for it @TobiasKildetoft ?
 
what's this geometric interpretation?
 
@AlexClark The Killing form will vanish whenever one argument is in the center of the Lie algebra
 
user147690
@TobiasKildetoft It asked me to find the killing form explicitly, there is no other way for that though right?
 
10:57 AM
@AlexClark Ahh, no, that does require the full calculation
 
user147690
Good xD
 
@SamuelYusim something something fibers. i'm trying to formulate it right now.
 
user147690
Anyway I had shown that $\mathfrak{gl}(2)$ was only reductive(from memory) in the previous question
 
user147690
Since $\mathfrak{gl}(2) \cong \mathfrak{sl}(2)) \boxplus Z(\mathfrak{gl}(2)$(which is simple and abelian respectively and some theorem gave me it from there)
 
@AlexClark My latest paper was actually about $\mathfrak{sl}_n(\mathbb{C})$
 
user147690
11:05 AM
@TobiasKildetoft Oh really, what about it?
 
@AlexClark A classification of projective functors on parabolic subcategories of category $\mathcal{O}$ for that Lie algebra (which is a "nice" category of representations for it)
 
OK, a corollary of Nakayama's lemma is then if $A$ is a local ring, $f : A \to B$ is a ring homomorphism, then if fiber of the maximal ideal $\mathfrak{m} \subset A$ by $f^* : \text{spec} \, B \to \text{spec} \, A$ has cardinality $1$, then $B$ is a trivial module over $A$. that doesn't seem right.
 
hmm, I think the intuition of the above statement is better captured if one thinks of $f^*$ as some kind of covering projection.
 
user147690
@TobiasKildetoft Are the three papers on Arxiv all the papers you have published?
 
user147690
11:16 AM
@TobiasKildetoft I know some of the words in here :P\
 
@Chris'ssistheartist i dont believe even if there is still a version of it nowadays, the book is ancient
 
@AlexClark I have one further paper that I published but never put on arXiv
the one not on arXiv also happens to be the only one of my papers cited by someone other than myself
 
scientific intelligence goes in parrallel with social intelligence, therefor the brain is always evolving, i know it decelerates badly over the third decade but i know it is still evolving (never decreases)
 
@Agawa001 I'm sure of it. I was just curious about an English version.
 
@TobiasKildetoft Hi
 
11:27 AM
@Moses Hi
 
@TobiasKildetoft Have you studied Operator Theory?
 
user147690
@Agawa001 What do you mean by social intelligence?(Because if you are using the word correctly, that is untrue)
 
@AlexClark Are you free right now?
 
user147690
@BalarkaSen Yep, for a little bit, gotta sleep soonish
 
@Moses Not really,no
 
11:28 AM
ah, was asking out of curiosity. how're your algebra classes going?
 
@AlexClark the fact you interact with people and earn new knowledge about actual lifestyle and quotidian events
 
No prob
 
user147690
@Agawa001 What if someone studies in isolation for a year, you think their social abilities are in parallel?
 
user147690
@BalarkaSen Algebraic physics is hard, but really really well
 
@AlexClark i strongly think so
 
user147690
11:30 AM
Got 100% for the first assignment and 95% for the first quiz
 
oh, wow, that's brilliant
 
user147690
@Agawa001 What do you mean by social abilities?
 
user147690
@BalarkaSen The other algebra is probably worse, but haven't got my grades back, I am hoping for it to be alright
 
"the other algebra"?
 
user147690
advanced algebra
 
user147690
11:32 AM
I am doing two algebra classes, advanced algebra math4301, and alg phys 3103
 
@AlexClark you have lost me there, i meant scientific and strategic intelligence increases relatively to social intelligence, i dont mean the way round
 
@AlexClark ah. are they still doing rep theory?
 
user147690
@BalarkaSen That was alg physics actually xD. Advanced algebra has just finished ring theory stuff and now are finishing field theory stuff
 
hi @DanielFischer
 
ok, totally confused. i'm disappointed that you are not doing well on ring/field theory :(
 
user147690
11:33 AM
Actually, sorry, just finishing part one of the fields chapter. Seems we will be doing it for awhile
 
@Moses Hi
 
user147690
Actually I probably did do really well, I just don't have the grades yet, but I was accessed for that assignment on cardano's method, group theory, sylow theory
 
ah, I see what you mean.
 
user147690
So I haven't yet got my assessment for rings and fields, but that'll be much nicer I think
 
you just haven't got the grades back, and hoping it be not so better as your alg phys marks.
i get it.
 
user147690
11:35 AM
Yeah sorry, typing badly because I'm tired
 
@Chris'ssistheartist i remember that i made lot of interesting things in my chilldhood, i made a rule of congruence and i was discovering some theorems before i study em in primary and secondary school, teachers kept telling me that you are stupid and mind-obstructed because i have a high difficulty of retaining and minding texts, if i ever listened to em, i would end up a peasan or bus driver
 
user147690
and it's bloody hot tonight wtf
 
what's the temp?
 
user147690
14c outside apparently, but it feels 30 in here...
 
user147690
Or I am sick again...
 
11:37 AM
@DanielFischer I proved that if $a$ is idempotent then $\sigma(a) = \{0,1\}$ if $a \neq 0$ and $a \neq 1$. Is there anything special about $f(a)$ where $f$ is analytic on some neighbourhood of $\sigma(a)$. Or can it only be written generally as $f(a) = \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \int_{\Gamma}f(z)(z-a)^{-1}dz$. If it is special don't tell me why, I will figure out.
 
get some sleep.
2
 
user147690
@BalarkaSen Alright, talk later :P
 
@Moses In that case, we have a simpler representation and characterisation of all possible $f(a)$.
 
@DanielFischer Okay kewl thanks.
 
@Agawa001 This reminds me a funny happening years ago while I was preparing for driving license test. Well, at some point, the instructor said to my father there is no hope for me to take it because I was not willing to listen to him, I was called stubborn and what not. To my neighbourhoods said a different story, that I didn't have the capacity to learn for taking the driving license.
 
11:42 AM
I was watching a lecture of Pierre Cartier talking about the "cosmic Galois group" but after a while things seemed to go right over my head.
 
@Agawa001 In the day of the test he was close to a heart attack, in his team I was the only one that passed the test, the others he trusted failed, and I took the test perfectly with a maximum score.
I think I was the only one with a perfect score from about 200 persons that took the test that day. The problem is that the instructor were good at driving practice (really good), but not at theory, and I couldn't listen to his stupidities.
instructor was*
 
@Chris'ssistheartist lol dont remind me, i failed two driving tests, i think i must do it this year.
 
@Agawa001 hehehe :-)))
 
i drive cars without licence, and the owner s licence is taken by cops due to my stupidities
:p
 
@Agawa001 :-)))))))))
 
11:46 AM
but i believe i will succeed this year
 
@Agawa001 It's like in everything, learn well and succeed. :-)
@Agawa001 And one more thing, since the day of my success the instructor never greated me again.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist my mother told me so often, that if you are a good mather, y ou are good in everything just because of the beautiful mind you got there. just try to extract this beauty
 
@Agawa001 As human beings we are endowed with so many qualities, but we need to work hard to uncover them.
2
@Agawa001 Yeah.
 
12:13 PM
Hello!!
Could you take a look at the proof of Theorem 3 :
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1382120/ft-has-undecidable-positive-existential-theory-in-the-language-cdot
and tell me at which point we use the Lemma ? How does this Lemma help us?
I have read the proof several times but I still haven't understood where the Lemma helps us... Do you have an idea?
 
^ over my head
 
12:36 PM
@DanielFischer Am I on the right track in simply observing that that for any analytic function $f$ on some neghbourhood of $\sigma(E) = \{0,1\}$ we can write $f(E) := \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}c_{n}E^{n} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}c_{n}E = \lambda E$ for some constant $\lambda$?
 
12:48 PM
@Moses Close, but not quite. Consider $E^0$.
 
1:07 PM
@DanielFischer Since $E^{0} =1 $ we get $f(E) = c_{0}1+ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}c_{n}E^{n} = c_{0}1 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}E = c_{0}1 + \lambda E$?
 
@Moses You dropped a couple of $c_n$, but the end result is right, $f(E) = c_0 1 + \lambda E$ for some scalars, $c_0,\lambda$.
 
Okay thanks.
 
1:29 PM
Hi @Balarka
 
@Balarka I have a question . I was solving this paper in which they had said prove that $\Bbb{Z}/n\Bbb{Z} \cong Z_n$. Well I know of the method in which you can use the first isomorphism theorem to this. What I want to do is to find an explicit isomorphism. So lets say if $<a>$ generates $Z_n$ then if I define the map to be $k\pm nm \mapsto a^k$ where $m\in \Bbb{Z}$. Will this map do the job?
 
First isomorphism theorem gives an explicit map.
And yes, you want to send $k \pmod{n}$ to $a^k$. $k \pm nm$ is bad notation.
 
Okay sorry. So will this map do?
 
I just said "yes"
 
1:36 PM
Okay sorry again. I didn't see it
So what did you do today @Balarka
 
No need to apologize.
@Rememberme nothing.
 
No maths?
 
I mean, nothing very interesting. Some comm. alg. and a bit of cohomology.
 
Well I was watching this video. All I understood from that was cohomology had something to do with rings. Using rings seems very fascinating. How do we use them in cohomology
 
cohomology are invariants for topological spaces with a natural graded ring structure, that's all. I think you should learn about fundamental groups before doing cohomology, though.
How much of Munkres have you done so far?
 
1:41 PM
I am starting countability and separability axioms tomorrow
Though after day after tomorrow I cannot do maths because I have my exams
 
Assuming you have done sufficiently many exercises on the things you have learnt so far, I think it won't hurt to start reading off ch. 9 part II.
if you want to learn that stuff, that is.
 
I guess it will be better to start off after the exams because if I start now I might not concentrate enough on it. Though I will still look at it once@Balarka
 
although I recommend you not to delve an part II. just read ch. 9, do a few exercises. make sure you finish off ch. 4. many important theorems there.
ok, as you wish
 
we're doing ch. 1 of Hatcher but Hatcher seems pretty hard
 
@morphic they just skipped ch. 0?
that seems like a silly thing to do.
 
1:47 PM
Okay @Balarka I guess I will finish chapter 4 and then go to 9
 
@BalarkaSen we're supposed to self-study cells and stuff and then hand in an assignment
 
@Remember i mean, you can do both simultaneously.
@morphic oh, i see
so, what have you learnt so far?
 
Thats better then @Balarka I will do that then :)
Hello@morphic
 
@BalarkaSen we just finished reviewing point-set
i have to hand in this assignment next week
 
oh, alright.
let me know when you get to the fun part.
 
Hi @Rememberme
Is that you lecturing
 
Nope, morphic
 
2:16 PM
@Balarka
We define $O_n(F) = \{A\in GL_n(F) , <Au,Aw>=<u,w>\}$ But why would one want to do such a thing to the matrices in $GL_n(F)$
 
@Remember It's the group of all $n\times n$ matrices which preserves your billinear from on the $F$-vector space you have in mind. What do you mean by "why would one want to do such a thing"?
Also, your notation is a bit weird. It doesn't tell me about the $F$-vector space and billinear form I have on my vector space.
 
I mean to say that what is the motivation in doing such a thing
 
Go read Artin chapter 5.
I am not sure what kind of motivation you are asking for anyway. Consider the special case of a real vector space equipped with dot product. Do you see what your matrices do then?
 
 
1 hour later…
3:28 PM
morning
 
morning, @MikeMiller
 
4:05 PM
@DanielFischer Is the reasoning of this proof okay: Suppose $a = a^{4}$, where $a \neq 0$ and $a \neq 1$ in a unital Banach algebra $\mathcal{A}$. Consider the function $f(x) = x^{4}-x$. It follows then that $f(a) = a^{4}-a$, from the spectral mapping theorem we have $\sigma(a^{4}-a) = \sigma(a)^{4}-\sigma(a)$. Since $\sigma(a^{4}-a) = \sigma(0) = 0$, it follows that $$\sigma(a)^{4} = \sigma(a).$$

It follows further then that since $f(\sigma(a)) = \{ f(x): x \in \sigma(a) \} = \{0\}$ and $f(x) = x^{4}-x$, that $x^{4} = x$ where $x \in \sigma(a)$. This implies $\sigma(a) \subset \{0,1\}$. I
 
@Moses: I follow you until the very last line. There are more solutions to $x^4 = x$ than that. There are also the two roots of $\omega^2 + \omega + 1 = 0$, which are $$\frac{-1\pm i\sqrt{5}}{2}.$$
 
@Moses You don't have $\sigma(x-y) = \sigma(x) - \sigma(y)$ generally. But you have $\sigma(a^4) = \sigma(a)^4$ by spectral mapping.
 
oh
@DanielF: I thought SMT said that, in particular, for any entire function (in particular any polynomial) $f$, we have $f(\sigma(a)) = \sigma(f(a))$? So one should have $f(\sigma(a)) = \sigma(a^4-a)$?
So we're not invoking $\sigma(x-y) = \sigma(x)-\sigma(y)$, which I agree is false.
 
Sorry if this is off topic, but I've been reading a book on probability and I came across a notation that seems a bit odd to me. I think I have an idea of what's going on, but I'm not sure. Here's what I've got so far - could someone peek at it real quick? Thanks!
 
4:25 PM
@MikeMiller So what do you get for $\sigma(a)$ in the case $a = a^{4}$?
 
@Moses: Let's call $$\omega = \frac{-1 \pm i\sqrt{5}}{2}.$$ Then $a^4-a$ factors as $a(a-1)(a-\omega)(a+\overline \omega)$. We know $\sigma(a) \subset \{0,1,\omega, \overline \omega\}$. What subset it is depends on $a$.
If $a$ is 0, 1, $\omega$, or $\overline \omega$, $\sigma(a)$ is a singleton. If $a$ satisfies $a^2 = a$, then it's $\{0,1\}$. Similarly for $a$ satisfying any other subproduct of those factors - eg if $a$ satisfies $a(a-\omega) = 0$...
 
@MikeMiller How did you do that factorization and value for $\omega$?
 
@AliasUser You're welcome! :)
 
@Moses: 0 and 1 are both roots so factor out an $a$ and an $a-1$, and then solve $a^2+a+1$ using the quadratic formula.
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous - any idea on whether my intuition is correct?
 
4:33 PM
@AliasUser sorry, idk
 
No worries - thanks!
 
It is easy to show that for a Riemann inregrable function $ f $, $F(x)=\int_0^x f(t) dt $ is lipschitz. Is the same true if f is lebesgue integrable over $\mathbb{R}$ and $F(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x f(t) dt $??
I've been trying to build a counter example all morning
 
4:49 PM
lol whoops
 
kk
Teehee
 
@MikeMiller If $a$ satisfies $a(a-w) = 0$ then $\sigma(a) = \{0,w \}$?
 
@Moses: Assuming it's not constant, yes.
Same argument as last time: if it's not constant, both of those are zero divisors.
 
@MikeMiller By not constant you mean if $a \neq 0$ or $a \neq 1$?
 
$a \neq 0$ and $a \neq w$.
When I write $c \in \Bbb C$ and call it an operator I mean $c \cdot 1$, where $1$ is the identity.
Which is why $a-w$ makes sense - it really means $(a - w \cdot 1)$
 
4:54 PM
Obviously the port of the proof to our case fails when you move from $|F(x)-F(y)|\leq \int_x^y |f|$ because $f$ needn't be bounded.
 
@MikeMiller I understand, thanks.
 
@Moses: Similarly if $a$ satisfies $a(a-1)(a-w) = 0$ but not any smaller term - $a(a-1) \neq 0$, $a(a-w) \neq 0$, $(a-1)(a-w) \neq 0$, then $\sigma(a) = \{0, 1, w\}$.
@Prototank: I don't agree that that fails. You're claiming that $\big| \int_x^y f d\mu\big| \leq \int_x^y |f|$ is not necessarily true. But that doesn't make sense, because $\int_x^y f$ is defined as $\int_x^y f^+ - \int_x^y f^-$, where $f^+$ is the nonnegative part and $f^-$ is the nonpositive part. Then $|\int_x^y f| = |\int_x^y f^+ - \int_x^y f^-| \leq |\int_x^y f^+| + |\int_x^y f^-| = \int_x^y f^+ + \int_x^y |f^-|$, as desired.
(The last term is, then, $\int_x^y |f|$.)
 
Sorry, I misspoke. The triangle inequality works as you have shown. However, we cannot continue from there because |f| is not necessarily bounded
 
@Prototank: But $\int_x^y |f| \leq \int_{\Bbb R} |f|$. Take this to be your Lipschitz constant $M$.
 
Why didn't I think of this?
Ack
 
5:14 PM
@MikeMiller Is this fine? How does $f(a)$ look for any $f \in \text{hol}(a)$? Since $a = a^{4}$ it can be shown that $a= a^{4}= a^{7} = a^{10}.....$ and $a^{2} = a^{5} = a^{8} = a^{11}....$ and $a^{3} = a^{6} = a^{9} = a^{12}....$.
Hence we have that $f(a) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}c_{n}a^{n} = c_{0}1 + \sum\limits_{k=1+3n}c_{k}a + \sum\limits_{k=2+3n}c_{k}a^{2} + \sum\limits_{k =3n}c_{k}a^{3} = \lambda_{0}a + \lambda_{1}a + \lambda_{2}a^{2} + \lambda_{3}a^{3}~~~\text{for }n\in \mathbb{N}$ and scalars $\lambda_{0}, \lambda_{1}, \lambda_{2}, \lambda_{}$.
 
I don't really understand your previous line. Let's not work with holomorphic functions, let's work with polynomials. Suppose $a$ satisfies $f(a)$, and $f$ is of minimal degree - that is, that $g(a) \neq 0$ for any nonzero $g$ with $\text{deg } g < \text{deg } f$. Then you can prove $\sigma(a)$ is the set of roots of $f$, by the same idea as before.
 
@MikeMiller: I think I finally have it. Yes this will be our M, but the proof I wrote isn't as trivial as a port from the Reimann case. I had to use the characterization of lebesgue integrability that can be described by "as the measure of the set being integrated over goes to zero, so does the integral". Consider cases for x, y close to one another and when they are far apart.
 
@Mikemiller There was typos. I meant. Is this fine? How does $f(a)$ look for any $f \in \text{hol}(a)$? Since $a = a^{4}$ it can be shown that $a= a^{4}= a^{7} = a^{10}.....$ and $a^{2} = a^{5} = a^{8} = a^{11}....$ and $a^{3} = a^{6} = a^{9} = a^{12}....$.
Hence we have that $f(a) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}c_{n}a^{n} = c_{0}1 + \sum\limits_{k=1+3n}c_{k}a + \sum\limits_{k=2+3n}c_{k}a^{2} + \sum\limits_{k =3n}c_{k}a^{3} = \lambda_{0}a + \lambda_{1}a + \lambda_{2}a^{2} + \lambda_{3}a^{3}~~~\text{for }n\in \mathbb{N}$ and scalars $\lambda_{0}, \lambda_{1}, \lambda_{2}, \lambda_{3}$.
 
@Prototank: OK, I see your point. Actually the standard proof is irrelevant here, because the only time $M|x-y|$ matters here is when $|x-y|$ is small, as the integral over everything is bounded.
@Moses: I'm sorry, I really still have no idea what you're saying. Why is there an infinite sum all of a sudden?
 
@MikeMiller Right. There was a "we have $\sigma(a^4-a) = \sigma(a)^4 - \sigma(a)$" in the message, however.
 
5:29 PM
@DanielFischer: I only saw "you have $\sigma(a^4) = \sigma(a)^4$ by spectral mapping". Sorry.
 
@MikeMiller @MikeMiller For the case where $a = a^{4}$, I am looking at characterizing the Holomorphic Functional Calculus mapping $f(a) = \frac{1}{2 \pi}\int_{\Gamma}f(z)(z-a)^{-1}dz$, where $f$ is an analytic function on some neighbourhood of $\gamma(a)$. There's a Theorem which shows that we can write $f(a)$ as $f(a) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}c_{n}a^{n}$. Then my answer follows from this point.
 
OK, sure, I understand now.
 
I am a bit confused what the wave equation here mathworld.wolfram.com/WaveEquation.html says
What do the second partial derivatives of $u$ wrt x and t have to do with waves?
 
5:45 PM
Mathworld is a terrible source for a lot of things. I suggest against it. Anyway, $\psi$ here is a function of $v$ and $t$, and $\nabla^2$ is meant to be the Laplacian.
Oh, you're asking why it's related to the actual physical thing.
 
Yeah
The latter
 
Then look somewhere other than mathworld. I'm sure wikipedia will be a good source.
 
Ok
@KevinDriscoll if you can comment on the above, that would be awesome
 
I have several answers for this in mind, like : tensor products turn billinear algebra to linear algebra, tensor products are dual to fibered products, so they'll show up when look at the coordinate ring of fibered product of two varities, etc, but not sure if it's worth posting as an answer
maybe better suited as a commetn?
 
Who would benefit from that?
Someone learning about tensor products for the first time will not appreciate the fibered product of varieties. Someone who would appreciate the fibered product of varieties already appreciates tensor products.
 
5:51 PM
fair enough. i don't even know how to answer this question, it's asking about motivation for so fundamental a thing
 
@MikeMiller I lied. Not quite sure how to ensure our inequality when x and y are close.
 
@Prototank: The $M$ I suggested is not good enough, not even for Riemann integrable functions. Oh well.
 
Maybe there is a counterexaple... it will have to be pretty contrived as we can never make |F(x)-F(y)| unbounded.
 
6:18 PM
Mhm?
 
@MikeMiller: To make a counter example $F$ would need to be some function that isn't lipschitz continuous. We would need such an $F$ with the property that $f$ is Lebesgue integrable, but not Riemann integrable. right?
 
Hi @BalarkaSen and @MikeMiller
 
Well, it would need to not be bounded almost everywhere, which is the essential property we're using of Riemann integrable functions.
(But yes, I agree.)
 
hi @Alizter
 
Hi Alizter.
 
6:21 PM
Would you know which vector spaces the laplace transform maps between?
We can say that it maps from functions that are exponentially bounded
on $\Bbb R$ btw
 
Huy
@Alizter: Hardy space?
 
So basically can we see it as an isomorphism between vector spaces
 
If we make $f=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}*\chi_{[0,1]}(x)$ then $f$ is not bounded almost everywhere on $\mathbb{R}$ yet $\int_\mathbb{R} |f|=2$
 
I've been trying to solve this here:

Problem 2.7 The joint probability $Pr(w, x, y, z)$ over four variables factorizes as $Pr(w, x, y, z) = Pr(w)Pr(z|y)Pr(y|x, w)Pr(x)$.
Demonstrate that x is independent of w by showing that $Pr(x, w) = Pr(x)Pr(w)$.
Shouldn't it be $Pr(z | y, x, w)$, not just $Pr(z | y)$ in the first equation?
 
@AliasUser: The best phrasing I know is that it maps from $L^2(\Bbb R_{\geq 0})$ to $H^2$. That it's an isomorphism is the Paley-Wiener theorem.
 
6:36 PM
@MikeMiller - thank you! Unfortunately, I'm not all too familiar with Hardy spaces. This is at the start of a relatively simple introduction to probability theory - is there a simpler derivation I'm overlooking?
 
I'm so sorry, wrong ping.
I meant @Alizter.
 
@MikeMiller - I thought that sounded a bit difficult :)
 
@MikeMiller Thank you very much
 
@MikeMiller - does my problem above seem like a typo to you?
 
@AliasUser: I am a probability ignoramus, so take this with a grain of salt, but I tend to agree that what you said makes sense.
 
6:39 PM
@MikeMiller - you're way ahead of me. Thanks!
 
@DanielFischer For $a>0$, the integral $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x \sin ax}{1+x^{2}} \, dx$ is not Lebesgue integrable. But if you show $\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x \sin ax}{1+x^{2}}$ is uniformly convergent for $a>0$ (which I think can be done by integrating by parts), would that show $$\frac{d}{da} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\cos ax}{1+x^{2}} \, dx = -\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x \sin ax}{1+x^{2}} \, dx?$$
 
@RandomVariable If "uniformly convergent" means what I think it means, then yes.
 
@DanielFischer I'm referring to this.
 
Good. That guarantees the conclusion.
 
6:54 PM
@RandomVariable That's a nice first question :)
 
@mickep Thanks.
 
@RandomVariable were the upvotes reversed?
 
@M.S.E No. But I would prefer if you didn't upvote any more of my answers for the time being.
 
@RandomVariable i wouldnt :)
 
@MikeMiller is there any way for me to show you my argument without opening a question on stack exchange? I feel like that would be obnoxious. I want to share with you the counter example though.
 
7:07 PM
@Prototank: I'm focusing on other things right now, so I probably would not spend much time looking at your argument anyway. I'm sorry.
 
how dare you ;)
well, thanks for your time regardless
 
Maybe @DanielFischer can help, if he doesn't mind me dragging him into this.
 
@MikeMiller Depends. What is it about?
 
Finding an example of a Lebesgue integrable function $f$ such that $F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x fd\mu$ is not Lipschitz.
 
@MikeMiller Just take an $f \in L^1 \setminus L^\infty$?
 
7:11 PM
Why is that obviously not Lipschitz?
Oh.
 
Because $F' = f$ (a.e. and in the sense of distributions).
 
Right.
This is what I get for meddling with matters beyond my ken.
 
@DanielFischer As far as I know, there isn't even a Wikipedia article that talks about the "uniform convergence" of an integral.
 
@RandomVariable Yeah, it's kind of obscure. A lot of people use the term, but definitions are hard to come by.
 
Claim: If $f=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}*\chi_{[0,1]}(x)$ then $F(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x$ is not Lipschitz continuous.

Proof: Let $C>0$ be given. Choose $x,y\in (0,\frac{1}{4C^2})$. Then we have $|F(y)-F(x)|=|\int_x^y f| = 2|\sqrt{y}-\sqrt{x}| > \frac{|y-x|}{\sqrt{y}+\sqrt{x}} \geq \frac{|y-x|}{2\sqrt{1/4C^2}}= \frac{|y-x|}{1/C} = C|y-x|$
 
7:20 PM
@Prototank: What Daniel was pointing out is that the derivative of a Lipschitz function, where defined, is bounded above by the Lipschitz constant $M$. And $f = F'$ a.e. So if $F$ is Lipschitz, then $f$ is a.e. bounded. So any integrable but not a.e. bounded function works, like your example.
Good choice, though.
 
Again, thanks for the time. Do you ever feel like you've spent too much time on a problem that wasn't that hard?
7
 
I feel that way most days.
 
That's exactly how I feel all the time.
 
7:44 PM
Is there a neat way of writing $$(x y z+x+y+z) (3 x y z+x y+x z+y z-x-y-z-3)$$ ?
 
@Chris'ssistheartist What you mean by neat, i.e. what do you want to do next?
 
@mickep As a longer product of simpler factors. I need it for manipulating some series.
One thing is to note that $$(1-x) (1-y) (1-z)=x y+x z+y z-x-y-z+1-x y z$$
 
@Chris'ssistheartist Yes, $$3 x^2 y^2 z^2+x^2 y^2 z+x^2 y z^2+2 x^2 y z+x^2 y+x^2 z-x^2\\+x y^2 z^2+2 x y^2 z+x y^2+2 x y z^2-2 x y+x z^2-2 x z-3 x+y^2 z-y^2+y z^2-2 y z-3 y-z^2-3 z$$
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous Oh, this is not neat :-)
 
Btw, @Chris'ssistheartist, did you simplify the polylogarithm expressions in math.stackexchange.com/questions/1422101/…?
 
7:57 PM
@mickep I didn't work on it anymore, I prepared some stuff for some magazines. But you did a good job there, it's simplified a lot.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist i was joking :))) Let me check something at the AoPS with a list of useful algebraic identities and I'll see if one can simplify that one
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous OK :D
 
Hey guys
can anyone double-check my answer to math.stackexchange.com/questions/1422383/… ?
I got a downvote, which had me somewhat surprised because I don't think I made a logical mistake
 
@Chris'ssistheartist found it, now I need to figure out which identity will be of help
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous thanks!
@IWantToRemainAnonymous I looked at all fast, and no one helps. :-)
A problem I just created while working on this stuff: Prove that $$\int _0^1\int _0^1\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+x y+x z+y z} \ dx \ dy \ dz \le 2 \log^3(2)$$
 
8:15 PM
@Chris'ssistheartist this one may help $$x^2y-y^2z-z^2x-xy^2-yz^2-zx^2+(x+y+z)(xy+yz+zx)=3xyz $$ i'll try to play with it and see where it leads
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous hmmm, let me see.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist W|A suggests that $(xyz+x+y+z)(3xyz+xy+xz+yz−x−y−z−3)$ has an irreducible factorization :/
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous It may be, but I don't trust that much these machines anymore.
For years (exaggerating a bit - but there is some painful truth in there) Mathematica isn't able to calculate in closed form my integrals and series. W|A thinks like Mathematica.
 
@Chris'ssistheartist But there's a huge difference between finding closed forms of integrals & series and factorizing algebraic expressions
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous I know, I was emphasizing the that fact that they are unable to do the job sometimes.
 
8:27 PM
@Chris'ssistheartist I have the feeling that they will always find "nice" factorizations of algebraic expressions if they exist, but I agree with you on that they aren't good sometimes with integrals & series
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous did yiou try this identity? $$(a+b+c+d)^3 - 16(abc+abd+acd+bcd) = (a+b+c+d)(a+b-c-d)^2 + 4(c-d)^2(a+b) + 4(a-b)^2(c+d)$$
 
@Chris'ssistheartist No, i'll try to play with it after eating something
 
@IWantToRemainAnonymous I'm usually smarter with empty stomach :-))))))))) (brain is better irrigated with blood)
@IWantToRemainAnonymous OK
@IWantToRemainAnonymous I was trying to say a different thing, to check that with W|A.
(after you move the last 2 terms in the right to the left)
So, does one seem a hard inequality? $$\int _0^1\int _0^1\int _0^1\frac{1}{1+x y+x z+y z} \ dx \ dy \ dz \le 2 \log^3(2)$$
@DanielFischer I remember you did in the past some inequality of mine, and I suppose they are not that bad as the integrals and series I post. Some ideas about this one?:-)
I'm trying to figure out if it is straightforward and I miss some ways excepting the one I have.
@Rigor ideas?
 
::thinking::
 
8:42 PM
@Rigor No hurry with that. I also try to figure out if there is some fast way excepting the way I used when I created it.
@r9m ^^^ kind of inequalities you like much :-)
 
@StanShunpike sorry I missed your question. Could you ask it again?
 
back
@Chris'ssistheartist I don't think it will lead to something
 
8:58 PM
@IWantToRemainAnonymous I only gave it to you to check it with W|A. I doubt W|A makes the desired factorization.
 
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