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12:01 AM
@user1 okay i have an idea
consider $(\prod_{i=1}^kx_i)(m)$, where each $x_i=A$ or $B$
let $F_k$ denote the union of the set of formal expressions produced by all possible $x$ sequences of length $k$
 
What union?
@AlexanderGruber Do you mean to collect all $\prod^k x_i$ or all $(\prod^k x_i)(m)$, I guess by "formal expressions", the first right?
 
for example, $F_1=\{A(m),B(m)\}=\{2m,2m-1\}$, $F_2=\{(AA)(m),(AB)(m),(BA)(m),(BB)(m)\}=\{4 m,4 m -3, 4 m-2, 4 m -1\}$.
 
Oh, ok, thanks for clarifying.
 
I think I have a working solution, I just have to show that I can reach a perfect power of two using the $2n-1$ transform.
 
@AlexanderGruber Would it be advantageous to include a null operator $N$ so that $F_k\subset F_{k+1}$?
 
12:16 AM
@user1 yeah, that'd be good
 
@user1 in fact, including the null operator is equivalent to making $G_t=\bigcup_{s=1}^tF_k$
 
@GustavoBandeira ...de pijama
 
so what we want to study is the zorn's lemma object $\overline{G}$ at the top of the food chain there
 
@IanMateus :P
 
12:28 AM
@AlexanderGruber Hm. There do not seem to be any rules that relate strings of $A,B$.
If you draw it as a tree, it seems that every element has a unique history.
This makes it a free monoid.
 
yeah: exactly
 
I don't see how to use $\bar G$, then.
 
12:58 AM
@user1 I think we can prove that $\bar G=\bigcup_n\{2^nm-v:v\in[0,2^{n}]\}$
 
Right, by induction.
 
so that's from $2^nm-2^{n}+1=2^{n}(m-1)+1$ to $2^nm$, it seems like we should be able to prove that an $n$ exists for every $m$ so that that's big enough that it has to have a fifth power in it
 
Isn't that how adriano's comment works?
 
oh, i haven't read it
oh yeah, that'd do it
actually, maybe not
 
1:18 AM
@AlexanderGruber You can also do it analytically. For $m>1$, $5(2^nm)^{4/5}\le 2^{(4/5)n}5m^{4/5}$. The second half is constant, so let $n$ be large enough that $2^{(1/5)n}>5m^{4/5}$; then, $4(2^nm)^{4/5}\le 2^n-1$. Now, let $x$ satisfy $x^5\le 2^nm$. Then $(x+1)^5-x^5= x^4+x^3+x^2+x+1\le 5x^4\le 5(2^nm)^{4/5}\le 2^n-1$. Then, I think a proof by contradiction suffices.
Damn, after a certain point, $5(2^nm)^{4/5}$ needs to be replaced by $\lfloor 5(2^nm)^{4/5}\rfloor$.
And in the second line $4(2^nm)^{4/5}$ should be $5(2^nm)^{4/5}$.
 
1:32 AM
@user1 well why i was doubting it is that, for example, taking $m=1$, $\lceil \log_2(m^4) \rceil=0$, but the interval is $\{1\}$
 
1:49 AM
@AlexanderGruber I would not have gone with precisely $n=\lceil\log_2(m^4)\rceil$ like adriano did. Anything higher than that should work better at capturing fifth powers as the intervals widen exponentially.
 
@MartinSleziak Your actions were perfectly normal and standard. I am inclined to believe Eric was pulling your leg.
 
 
5 hours later…
6:34 AM
anyone alive?
 
6:45 AM
no
 
6:56 AM
and yes, just like Schrodinger's cat :D
 
 
3 hours later…
9:57 AM
Greetings
 
and salutations :D
 
@skullpatrol hehe. How are you?
 
@Chris'ssis Fine thanks, how are you?
 
@skullpatrol no math at the moment. I've been developing a new approach as regards quality assurance system, that is I improve some specific areas of it (hopefully they'll be major improvements).
 
@Chris'ssis cool
 
10:11 AM
@skullpatrol I'm involved in many things from different areas of life. :-)
 
@Chris'ssis You seem well diversified.
 
 
2 hours later…
12:06 PM
@Chris'ssis yo
 
12:36 PM
@N3buchadnezzar Great one! How are you? :-)
 
fine, you?
 
@N3buchadnezzar I just finished some work and thought to attend some nice integrals.
(I have in my mind one nice integral)
 
$$\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{(1+x^2)\sqrt[3]{x(x^2+1)}} \log\left(\frac{x}{x^2+1}\right) \ dx$$
 
@Chris'ssis lol =)
 
12:39 PM
:))))
 
@Chris'ssis Bah, it is close to the master formula
or the derivative of it, but it is barely not.
 
@N3buchadnezzar right. But I don't have it from that paper, but from a book called "Irresistible integrals".
 
@Chris'ssis same author :p
 
@N3buchadnezzar I also discovered independently some master formulas.
 
I have that book too, never really dug into it. Too much prequisites and too little integrals. ahha
Maybe I should look into it again
 
12:44 PM
@N3buchadnezzar it's very useful but the best way to do a good job is to perform personal research.
 
thats what one learns from ;)
 
@N3buchadnezzar hmmm, let me check something
 
crying and headbashing is another great method for learning mathematics..
 
@N3buchadnezzar I have been doing a lot of the latter recently. But now I managed to prove that what I was trying to prove is not true.
so now I can start banging my head against a variation of the problem that is still open
 
@N3buchadnezzar Could you open that book at the page 254?
I wanna show you something.
 
12:53 PM
@Chris'ssis Gimme a sec to write in a cool integral, okay? =)
 
$$
\int_0^\infty \frac{\log x}{1 + 2\cosh x}\,\mathrm{d}x
=
\frac{\pi}{\sqrt{3}} \log \left( \frac{\Gamma(2/3) \sqrt[3]{2\pi}}{\Gamma(1/3)} \right)
$$
@Chris'ssis Yes, what about that page? =)
 
@N3buchadnezzar the integral with the tangent function was given on a Putnam contest. I think $s$ was $\sqrt{2}$.
 
@Chris'ssis Yes, it is already in my notes
Famous problem
 
@N3buchadnezzar Yeah.
 
1:05 PM
@Chris'ssis Can be shown by using $$f(x) = f(\pi/2 - x)$$
$$
2I = \int_0 ^{\frac \pi 2} \frac 1 {1 + (\tan x)^r} dx + \int_{0} ^{\frac \pi 2} \frac 1 {1 + \frac{1}{(\tan y)^r}} dy = \int_0 ^{\frac \pi 2} \frac{1 + (\tan x)^r} {1 + (\tan x)^r} dx = \frac{\pi}{ 2 }
$$
 
@N3buchadnezzar the symmetry is the key.
@N3buchadnezzar that's OK. :-)
 
:p
@Chris'ssis Well I do have a more beautiful solution for the problem..
\begin{align}
\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{1 + \tan^r x}
& = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{(x^2+1)(x^r+1)} \\
& = \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{dx}{1+x^2} \\
& = \frac{\pi}{4}
\end{align}
 
@N3buchadnezzar I doubt that's true.
 
@Chris'ssis Why ? :p
 
hi guys what'sup can i come in ??
 
1:12 PM
@what'sup :-) Sup?
 
@N3buchadnezzar the 2nd integral has a problem with the integration limits.
 
AH, yes should be $0$ to $\infty$, obviously.
 
hi
are you just two here
 
@N3buchadnezzar the 3rd integral has the same problem.
 
@Chris'ssis AH, yes should be $0$ to $\infty$, obviously.
@what'sup PEople tend to get quiet when one talks about math here :p
 
1:14 PM
oh sorry :)
 
@N3buchadnezzar the 2nd equality cannot be true without placing somewhere a $2$.
 
@N3buchadnezzar The two proofs are essentially the same.
 
$$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^a (x) \cos(bx) \ dx$$
 
@N3buchadnezzar again you need to use the symmetry and it's of no help to go this way. I mean the 1st way you showed it's enough. This 2nd way brings nothing new.
 
@what'sup looks like a Gamma function
 
1:17 PM
@Chris'ssis This proof is correct it uses the fact that the $R(x) = 1/(1+x^2)$ satisifies the functional equation thus $R(x)/(x^r + 1)$ is independent of $r$.
 
i don't know but i know that $$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^a (x) \ dx $$ gamma function @robjohn
 
$\int_0^\infty R(x)/(1+x^r) dx = \int_0^\infty R(x)$.
 
so what do you think ?? @robjohn
 
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} 2^{n+1} \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^n (x) \cos(n x) \ dx=\pi$$
 
The right side is missing 0.5... Silly me hides in the shame corner
 
1:22 PM
@N3buchadnezzar :D
 
and ?????
guuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuys where are yoou ???
 
@what'sup at home?
 
ok
hahahahahaaaaha
you may not be smart, but you're smart enough to know you're not smart :-)
By robjohn
sorry guys on disturbing but i want to ask how i get more reputations
guuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuyyyyyyys
 
@what'sup By stop acting 14 :-)
2
 
1:37 PM
i didn't understand
i'm not acting
but i'll stop anyway
now you'll give me reputations :) :) ???
good bye
 
2:17 PM
@N3buchadnezzar I think you wanna see something nice ...
 
$$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^{n-1} (x) \cos((n+1) x) \ dx$$
:))))))
 
My guess is the answer is cabbage
 
@N3buchadnezzar sure. In a certain way you're right.
;)
 
2:48 PM
Hi. Anyone alive?
 
@what'sup I get $$2^{-a-1}\frac{\sin(\pi(a+b)/2)}{(a+b)/2}\frac{\Gamma(a+1)\Gamma(1-(a+b)/2)}{\Gamma(1+(a-b)/2)}$$
2
 
@N3buchadnezzar nice closed form. I didn't expect to be that nice.
 
When $a=b=0$, it gives $\pi/2$ at least :-)
 
hehe :-)
 
Mathematica cannot verify
Let me check some numerical values.
 
2:58 PM
@robjohn Letting $\lambda$ be the average of $a$ and $b$ simplifies the expression :-)
 
@robjohn It is a question of him, you should answer it :-)
 
@IanMateus Thanks. Did he mention the question here?
 
@robjohn Rolling back, seems like he just threw the integral up here. No links
 
@robjohn you used a similar approach to the approach you used yesterday to my question.
@robjohn I suspect $$\lim_{n\to\infty} 2^{n+1} \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^n (x) \cos(n x) \ dx=\pi$$ can be proved by induction. Actually, the value is $\pi$ for all n.
 
@robjohn I think you have a small typo in the lower limit of the integral (fourth line).
 
3:08 PM
Hey guys! I have a favor to ask you
 
@IanMateus where?
 
Do you suggest any group theory notes?
 
@robjohn Hm... I think I got it wrong.
 
@Chris'ssis Have you tried rewriting it to its complex form ?
 
@N3buchadnezzar No, because I didn't want to go that way, but by induction.
 
3:19 PM
@Chris'ssis Yo
If
$$ F(x) = \int_0^\infty e^{- t x^2} \cos^2x \mathrm{d}x \\
G(x) = \int_0^\infty e^{- t x^2} \sin^2x \mathrm{d}x
$$
Then $F$ and $G$ satisfies
$$ F^2 - G^2 + 2 F \cdot G = \frac{\pi}{2(t+1)} $$
Is this true? I remember seeing it, but do not remember quite the finer details.
 
@Chris'ssis I plugged that into my formula and I get $\pi$ for every integer :-)
 
@robjohn :-) I think the I'm a bit lost in the 6th line of your proof...
 
limiting $n$ to an integer :-)
 
O, figured it out =)
 
@Chris'ssis switching $u\mapsto-u$?
 
3:24 PM
@robjohn you wrote $e^{i\pi (a+b)/2+1}$
 
I need to add some explanation
@Chris'ssis it is $e^{i\pi}$ to the appropriate power.
it is a contour integral
@Chris'ssis I will add line by line explanation
 
Actually, you wrote $e^{i\pi ((a+b)/2+1)}$
OK
 
Bah you did not use $2 \lambda = a + b$, robjohn I am dissapoint.
 
3:50 PM
@Chris'ssis explanation added :-)
 
@robjohn oh, everything was OK.
 
@Chris'ssis I used the reflection formula to simplify things :-)
 
@robjohn all things were clear excepting that one, but now when I look back I realize there is only one explanation: too less sleep. :-)
 
@Chris'ssis Now you can simply plug in $a=b=n$ and get your limit :-)
 
@robjohn yeah, I noticed that.
 
4:09 PM
thanks robjohn
 
heyo I need a neater proof
 
looks like my question was very good and hard
 
I want to prove that a lipschitz-continuous function maps lebesgue null-sets to lebesgue null-sets.
For sure I can just take a cover of rectangles and bound the images and hence get the wanted result
 
@what'sup very good yes, but I have doubts it was hard to @robjohn.
 
4:27 PM
@Chris'ssis Is anything really?
 
@N3buchadnezzar hard to say :-)
@N3buchadnezzar I was surprised to find out that in our country kids will learn integrals in the 3rd high school year. Usually, they were thought these in the 4th high school year (the last year). Surely, there were always exceptions with the special kids...
 
@Chris'ssis I have done integrals like that before. I did one just yesterday, so this one was similar
 
One could use Rademachers Theorem + generalised Transformation theorem
 
Most of the time solving integrals is remembering similar results, integrals and techniques one has seen before.
 
4:41 PM
No most time solving integrals ist just failing ;)
 
@DominicMichaelis for any interval $\mu f[a,b]\le C\mu[a.b]$
 
@robjohn unfortunately I have less experience with complex analysis, but I like it very much since it's so powerful. Hopefully, I'm going to manage to read all my complex analysis books and do much better. :-) You know, you need a bit of courage at the beginning... (it's a new world -- the complex one) :-)
 
Once in a while though one i able to combine the previous knowledge into something new, original and beautiful. Like a buttefly springing from a cukoon.
@Chris'ssis I recommend "Visual Complex analysis"
 
@robjohn jupp that is the idea i am in $\mathbb{R}^n$ so it is $C^n \dots$
 
@N3buchadnezzar by Needham?
 
4:44 PM
@Chris'ssis contour integration is very powerful for evaluating definite integrals.
 
@robjohn I know and I suffer because of that ... :-)
 
@Chris'ssis yeah
 
@N3buchadnezzar OK, thanks.
 
I mean you would need another book or two for your main studies, but it is very nice for filing in the gaps and honing some ideas about C.
Oh, and chris, have some time to look at something?
 
@N3buchadnezzar The last integral I evaluated by complex analysis was $\displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^3} \ dx$, but this one was really easy.
@N3buchadnezzar OK
 
4:50 PM
@Chris'ssis That does have an anti derivative ?!
 
I have tried but got nowhere. I can show the results if it was not for the integrals
 
I mean a simple function as a antiderivative
 
$$ F(x) = \int_0^\infty e^{-xt^2} \cos^2x\mathrm{d}x \\
G(x) = \int_0^\infty e^{-xt^2} \cos^2x\mathrm{d}x$$
I posted them earlier but now I can not seem to show that $$ F^2(x) - G^2(x) = 2 F(x)G(x) = \pi/4(1+t^2) \,.$$
 
@DominicMichaelis actually, you can employ complex analysis for all family $\displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^n} \ dx$
 
4:53 PM
@DominicMichaelis Also it has an elementary anti-derivative, but it is somewhat cumbersome to calculate.
 
only for $n>1$
otherwise the integral doesn't converge
 
@N3buchadnezzar something is strange there. Both $F(x)$ and $G(x)$ look the same.
@DominicMichaelis right.
 
@Chris'ssis Should be $\sin^2x$ in the bottom one. Too late to edit.. hides again in the typo-corner
Also it should be $F(t)$ and $G(t)$
 
looks a bit like a fourier transformation
 
@DominicMichaelis Yes it is the fourerier transformation of $\cos(x/2\sqrt{x})$ and $\sin(x/2\sqrt{x})$ respectively.
 
5:01 PM
are those functions really in $L^1$ ?
I don't think so
 
Bah
BAH
bah bah bah
 
@Chris'ssis Here is a generalization on that
 
@robjohn thanks. I saw it a while ago and upvoted :-)
Nice
 
@robjohn One can also simply use the melin transform on $1/(1+x^n)$
\begin{align*}
\mathcal{M}\left\{ \frac{1}{1+u^\beta} \right\}(\alpha)
=
\int_0^\infty \frac{ u^{\alpha-1} \,\mathrm{d}u }{1 + u^\beta}
=
\frac{\pi / \beta}{\sin \left( \pi \alpha/\beta \right) }
\end{align*}
Proof: use the definition of the beta function.
 
and then the reflection formula. But then how to prove the reflection formula.
 
5:14 PM
@robjohn Oh, I have prooved that. Weiserstrass + eulers sine product.
(I have seen an elementary evaluation of it, but it is somewhat convoluted and takes 4-5 pages)
 
@N3buchadnezzar I have the proof at the bottom of the page I mentioned above, and another that I used when I proved $\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}}\frac1{k+z}=\pi\cot(\pi z)$
 
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{\Gamma(z)} \frac{1}{\Gamma(-x)} & =
\left( z e^{ \gamma z} \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1 - \frac{z}{n} \right) \exp \left( - \frac{z}{n} \right) \right)
\left( -z e^{-\gamma z} \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1 + \frac{z}{n} \right) \exp \left( \frac{z}{n} \right) \right) \\
& = -z^2 e^{\gamma z} e^{-\gamma z} \prod_{n=1}^\infty
\left\{ \left[ 1 + \frac{z}{n} \right] e^{-z/n} \right\}
\left\{ \left[ 1 - \frac{z}{n} \right] e^{ z/n} \right\} \\
\frac{1}{\Gamma(z)} \frac{1}{\Gamma(-z)} & = -z^2 \prod_{n=1}^\infty \left( 1 - \frac{z^2}{n^2} \right) \\
I guess it also can be shown by rewriting it as a double integra.. But I have not been able to prove it that way.. :-(
 
 
1 hour later…
6:32 PM
 
@Charlie CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCOMBO BREAKER.
 
@PeterTamaroff hahahahahahaha
@PeterTamaroff Hi Petya
 
@Charlie Petya?
 
@Charlie Unicorn!
 
@PeterTamaroff yep, for Pyotr
@N3buchadnezzar $\varnothing \text {instein}$ !!!
 
6:38 PM
gives bananas
 
@N3buchadnezzar yum
I'm not a monkey
 
Can i ride you ?
 
@Charlie Keep telling yourself that.
@anon ERMAGHERD STAR STAR STAR!
 
@PeterTamaroff Pink stars are falling in line
 
6:39 PM
@PeterTamaroff ....
 
@PeterTamaroff She is unicorn who likes bananas. No monkey
 
@N3buchadnezzar That is so offensive.
I should flag you.
But I'm a merciful soul.
 
@PeterTamaroff *merciful monkey
 
@N3buchadnezzar *merciful blonde monkey
 
6:43 PM
Who's starring stupid messages?
 
STAHP
 
@Charlie Stupid is good, sillypants.
 
@PeterTamaroff SO YOU ARE GOOD
 
@Charlie ...but not conversely.
 
6:45 PM
@PeterTamaroff *merciful blonde monkey king
 
@PeterTamaroff ha ha ha
I'll flag Pedro for being so silly
 
I mean who would not ride a unicorn if they could..
 
@N3buchadnezzar >:( I'm losing my patience
 
@Charlie Then you are being a bad doctor.
 
6:50 PM
Did no-one look at this one? Suppose $f:\Omega \subseteq \Bbb R^{n}\to\Bbb R$ is $\mathscr C^1$ and there is $p\in\Omega$ such that $f(p)=0,\nabla f(p)\neq 0$. Then $f(x)=0$ for infinitely many $x$.
 
@PeterTamaroff I don't follow that at all.
Unless you specify $n>1$
So it's equivalent to saying that the level set at zero cannot be finite for a sufficiently smooth function if the gradient is nowhere vanishing in that set. That makes sense.
 
@Arkamis Yes, you want $n>1$.
@Arkamis Yep.
@Arkamis In my defense, one would use $\nabla f$ only for $n>1$!
 
But it could be a vector of dimension 1!!
 
@Arkamis Sure, =)
 
7:00 PM
Actually, the use of $\nabla f$ for scalars is not uncommon in engineering.
 
@Arkamis So basically we use the Implicit Function Theorem to obtain $g:T\subseteq \Bbb R^{n-1}\to\Bbb R$ such that $f(g(t);t)=0$, assuming WLOG that the first entry of the gradient is nonzero.
 
@PeterTamaroff : are you sure what u are saying is correct ?
 
@Theorem What is making you doubt?
 
@PeterTamaroff : because if you think of one dimensional case , and take a polynomial as a function , then your statement is false .
 
@Theorem We already said we want $n>1$.
 
7:08 PM
@Theorem We've already covered that the hypothesis is for $n>1$.
 
If $n=1$, $\Bbb R^{n-1}$ makes little sense!
 
@PeterTamaroff : oh ok , didn't read the whole comment . sorry about that .
makes sense , intuitively its quite clear that the statement has to be true , isn't it ?
 
@Theorem One makes a drawing for the case $\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$ and all should be clear.
 
@PeterTamaroff yup exactly .
 
Proving it requires just paying attention to the formal argument.
But in fact by fixing coordinates one can just prove the case $n=2$.
 
7:30 PM
hi, for less than symbol we use \ls. for fraction we use \frac. what shall i use if i want plus/miuns (both combined)?
 
@Ramit \pm
$\pm$
or \mp $\mp$
 
thanks peter.
 
No problem.
 
yo
 
@user1 What up?
 
7:47 PM
@PeterTamaroff Not much, playing a game of chess...
@PeterTamaroff How about you?
 
Hmm
What substitution must one use to map $[a,b]$ onto $[0,\infty)$?
 
@N3buchadnezzar Just do a transform from a uniformly distributed RV to one of half-infinite support!
 
$ x \mapsto (t-a)/(t-a)$ seems to work, maybe.
 
um
 
@N3buchadnezzar I computed a very nice interal by complex analysis. You need to see it.
 
7:54 PM
INTEGRAG
INTERAL
eating icecream
 
@user1 Looking forward to studying some Linear Algebra and Fourier Theory.
 
@PeterTamaroff Ah, cool.
 
@PeterTamaroff This fall, I am going to bite the bullet, and I am going to finally work through Axler's Linear Algebra Done Right.
I hate that book with every bone in my body.
 
@Arkamis Why?
 
He spends time on trivial, elementary concepts, and completely glosses over important ones
 
7:57 PM
@Arkamis Then why read that book?
 
His questions rely on concepts from subsequent chapters
 
@N3buchadnezzar Translate and scale $[a,b]$ to get $[0,1]$. Fix 0, and map $(0,1]$ to $[1,\infty)$ by $x\mapsto 1/x$. Then translate that to get $[0,\infty)$.
 
And the professor I had who used it was AWFUL
Everyone seems to love it
So I'm going to give it a second chance.
 
I dislike most linear algebra books to be honest.
 
Honestly, now that I've learned some abstract algebra, it should be better.
Most linear algebra courses completely gloss over the algebra.
 
7:59 PM
@Arkamis pre-algebra or algebra?
 
Algebra
 
@N3buchadnezzar See this (integrag or integral) :-) $$\int_0^{\pi} e^{\cos(x)} \cos(\sin(x)) \ dx $$
 
As in the algebraic properties of vector spaces. I mean, they present them, but they usually fail to do so in a group/ring theory context
which would make it so much easier.
 
Linear algebra is for CS Majors anyway
 
8:02 PM
@Arkamis Yes, I really understood vector spaces algebraically when I realized they are just modules over fields. (This is kind of backwards though, since module theory seems to be partly based on the theory of vector spaces.)
 
@user1 Heh. =)
 
Like, I never really got the concept of basis and span until I studied proper algebra.
The terminology bothered me and the construction seemed to come from nowhere
 
The price of a car is reduced by 30 percent.

The resulting price is reduced 40 percent.

The two reductions are equal to one reduction of ?
 
58% right?
 
Yep :-)
 
8:09 PM
(I worked in a grocery store.)
 
@user1 Your koalifications are irrelephant.
2
 
@user1 Hah, grose store.
Who keeps staring all these silly messages?
 
@N3buchadnezzar Well, we all know it's not Ñu.
 
@PeterTamaroff Yeah, I guess you are correct it is probably not Ñu
 
@N3buchadnezzar I meant the animal, braw.
 
8:15 PM
@PeterTamaroff Did not know they had formed a band.
 
I wonder if there is a way to use Fermat's Last Theorem rather than Fermat's Little Theorem here.
 
@N3buchadnezzar Yes, that is new Ñus.
 
there's no gnus like good gnus, but a gnu by any other name will still smell
 
well paraphrased^
 
8:32 PM
@N3buchadnezzar my feeling is that we may also evaluate it by real methods (differentiation under the integral sign?)
 
@Chris'ssis yes
 
At any rate, the complex way seems the best way.
 
@Chris'ssis Is the integrand not equal to the real part of $e^{\cos(x)}e^{i\sin(x)}=e^{e^{ix}}$?
Then just substitute $u=e^{ix}$ and (via some sort of contour integral, I don't know which), evaluate?
 
@Alyosha well, I only attend some easy examples now since I want to read an entire book this night and I don't want to be stuck with some hard nuts.
 
The Norwegian book?
 
8:43 PM
@Alyosha Is there a book called this way? "Norwegian book"?
:-)
 
I hear there's quite a few Norwegian books, but not Norwegian book books.
Glossing over hard examples actually seems an excellent strategy for reading a book for the first time.
 
8:58 PM
@Chris'ssis That is wat she said.
@Alyosha Norwegian book ?
 
@N3buchadnezzar You also have a Norwegian book :-)
 
@Chris'ssis I have a few book written in norwegian, yeah
Most of our textbooks are in English now though.
 
@N3buchadnezzar are they to be found on amazon.com?
 
Some are
 
9:08 PM
By the Norwegian book, I meant @N3buchadnezzar's work in progress
 
@Chris'ssis Do you know that there is a nice closed form for that?
 
@robjohn sure. It's $\pi$. :-)
 
@Chris'ssis Okay, so says Mathematica :-)
 
@Alyosha OH, thank you =)
Well there is sort of an English version sort of already. Irresistible integrals. My work is by no means a complete study, just parts I think are cool, and nice integrals with nice techniques, and proofs.
 
$$
\begin{align}
\int_0^\pi e^{\cos(x)}\cos(\sin(x))\,\mathrm{d}x
&=\frac12\int_{-\pi}^\pi e^{\cos(x)}\cos(\sin(x))\,\mathrm{d}x\\
&=\frac12\mathrm{Re}\left(\frac1i\int_{-\pi}^\pi e^{e^{ix}}e^{-ix}\,\mathrm{d}e^{ix}\right)\\
&=\frac12\mathrm{Re}\left(\frac1i\int_\gamma\frac{e^{u}}{u}\,\mathrm{d}u\right)
&&\begin{array}{l}
\text{$\gamma$ follows the unit circle}\\
\text{ counterclockwise from}\\
\text{$e^{-i\pi}$ to $e^{i\pi}$}
\end{array}\\[9pt]
&=\pi
\end{align}
$$
2
 
9:19 PM
@robjohn What path is $\gamma$?
 
Goes around the unit circle once counterclockwise
 
@robjohn Why did you pick that one over all possible ones?
 
because it is where $e^{ix}$ goes when $x$ goes from $-\pi$ to $\pi$
 
Thank you!
This had been annoying me for ages- so similar to making a substitution and having to replace $dx$ with $du$ to 'fit' the substituted function, you have to bend the original $'dx'$ path (usually the real line) to 'fit' the substituted function?
 
9:34 PM
@Alyosha I bent nothing. I just followed the path in the problem. $e^{ix}$ bends the interval $[-\pi,\pi]$ around the unit circle.
 
OK, fundamentally it autobends, but on paper it is the mathematician who implicitly bends it. I was a bit unclear above, sorry.
 
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