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11:00 PM
@PeterTamaroff Yup, but that is not enough for differentiability, it has to be continuous in some open interval around the point where you are checking the differentiability.
 
@JayeshBadwaik I'm not claiming "continuous $\Rightarrow$ differentiable". I don't understand what you mean.
 
@PeterTamaroff I am also not saying for the whole domain. But no problem, let us go by first principles.
9 mins ago, by Peter Tamaroff
In the second case, say $a+h=m/u$, then I get that $$\frac{{f\left( {a + h} \right) - f\left( a \right)}}{h} = \frac{{\frac{1}{u} - 0}}{{\frac{m}{u}}} = \frac{1}{m}$$
We are here.
 
@JayeshBadwaik Yes, and $m=u(a+h)$
 
Yup.
So, now? As $h \rightarrow 0$ does $\frac{1}{m} \rightarrow A \text{ or } \infty$?
for some $A$ ?
 
11:09 PM
@JayeshBadwaik I must go now. If u want u can take a look at my question. Dont feel pressurred.
Bye guyssss
 
@math101 bye. I will take a look, thought I may not be able to answer.
 
@JayeshBadwaik I wrote something wrong.
 
@PeterTamaroff If $a+h$ is rational, then $h$ is irrational.
 
@JayeshBadwaik Yes, yes. But I should've written
$$\frac{{f\left( {a + h} \right) - f\left( a \right)}}{h} = \frac{1}{u}\frac{1}{h}$$
 
Okay. We can write it like this.
Now, see, you have to show that this limit does not converge as $h \rightarrow 0$ right?
 
11:16 PM
@JayeshBadwaik I have to show the limit doesn't exist, yes. We usually use "converge" for sequences =P
 
Yeah sorry about that.
So, we will just rewrite the expression as follows:
\begin{equation}
f\left(\frac{m}{u}\right) \frac{1}{h}
\end{equation}
 
@JayeshBadwaik OK.
 
So, basically you have to show that in any interval $(a,b)$ you can find $c$ such that f(c) < h, and hence f(c)/h<1.
 
@JayeshBadwaik This functions is periodic right? I mean, it is the same on $(0,1)$,$(1,2)$, etc...
 
11:24 PM
OK.
 
Once this is done, then, you can fix any integer $p$ and then show that for for $h < qp$
The ratio is greater than q.
Hence, for any epsilon,delta combination, you can make your difference of ratios always greater than $q-1$
and hence, the for every epsilon > 0 there exists delta>0 condition is broken, since the choice of q is upto you.
Wait I guess I am being totallt obscure here.
Let me formulate my arguments again.
You want to prove for every $\epsilon > 0$ there exists $\delta > 0$ such that $|x-a| < \delta \implies \left|\frac{f(x+h) - f(x)}{h} - L\right| <\epsilon$
We have now simplified it to.
You want to prove for every $\epsilon > 0$ there exists $\delta > 0$ such that $|x-a| < \delta \implies \left|f\left(\frac{m}{u}\right)\frac{1}{h} - L\right| <\epsilon$
Now consider the interval $(a,a+\delta)$ for any delta.
Can you make $f\left(\frac{m}{u}\right)\frac{1}{h}$ vary wildly in this interval?
 
You lost me, sorry. I'm gonna ask this on main.
 
@PeterTamaroff Yup, no problem. I am possibly a terrible explainer. :-)
 
user19161
11:53 PM
@JayeshBadwaik I forgot my analysis, but what result is this? Why must differentiability at a point imply continuity on an interval?
 
Hi
I had a small question
what happens to the graph of an object
(velcotiy vs time)
if the acceleration is kept the same but velocity is cut in half?
 

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