Grammatically, 1 Corinthians 13:9 is ambiguous enough that Paul could be referring to the parts of the body of Christ ("individually"). However, the context makes it clear that is not the case and that he has the more common meaning of "partially" in mind.
Paul's argument
In chapter 12 of 1 Co...
1 Corinthians 13:8-10
Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. For we know in part and we prophesy in part, but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears.
This ver...
Question:
In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written--not a hundred years later?
1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when "the perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" comes, the partial will be done away.
The Exegetical Approach:
Wh...
I do not think you can have discussion about cessationism without mentioning 1 Corinthians 13:
1 Corinthians 13:8-10
8 Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. 9 For we know ...
(Citing as support for the notion that this is the biblical basis those who disagree with that conclusion, which seems to be a theme.)
@Susan My first impression was that it is eschatological, but after digging into it I don't think it is. One of the main themes of 1 Corinthians is spiritual maturity and the immediate context both before and after v10 is also about maturity so I now think it makes more sense to read it in light of that theme rather than eschatologically. That said, I don't think it impacts the original question - "perfection"/"completeness" is better contrasted to "partially" than "individually" regardless
I'll probably answer one of the 13:10 questions to more fully justify the maturity interpretation. :)
@Susan @Caleb @Dan FYI, to whomever reviewed my flag on this post it was accurate when I made it, but the OP fixed his post after that.
@ThaddeusB Well that was me and I had not reviewed the edit history (or deleted comment). I might have marked it differently if I had, but it really doesn't matter. The flag was no-action either way and it's no mark against you. You have no way to cancel a flag anyway after it's sent, so a mod has to clear it.
@Susan the three question seem to overlap considerably - basically the same question, but with three different interpretations offered in the Q and the question in each case phrased as "is this correct?" ... Perhaps edit one Q to offer all three options?