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2:23 AM
@ScottS I don't know the slightest about Aramaic, Hebrew and those on to Greek, etc. Re: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/12871/2873 I'd rather not take up so much room with comments there. I just read something today. It says "The literal translation of Genesis 14:14 actually says that Lot is Abraham’s brother." Is that one line correct? Thanks.
 
 
7 hours later…
9:02 AM
Thank you for the helpful comments - I have attempted to edit this question in line with the comments received. — Richard 48 mins ago
@user2479 ^^^ do you think the edit has helped?
 
 
2 hours later…
11:08 AM
@JackDouglas Please close my question. Thanks. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/12866/2873
 
11:31 AM
ah, I see you've deleted it
there must me another question about that passage on the site?
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1
A: Why was Elijah so afraid of Jezebel that he fled immediately after performing a great miracle?

user3125602It amazes me how many sermons I've heard and articles I've read that describe the showdown on Mount Carmel as a triumph for God in such terms that the audience would cry out a resounding "hurrah!" at the fate of unrepentant sinners, and how this should inspire us to be uncompromisingly single-min...

^^^ I so disagree with this answer, but I've upvoted it anyway :)
 
12:05 PM
@JackDouglas I hadn't found one but didn't want it on this site.
 
 
2 hours later…
2:09 PM
@JohnMartin The Hebrew word there is the more inclusive אָח (ʾāch), which can be used of any "kindred" relation. Gen 11:27 and 31 make clear the kindred type relation of Lot as nephew to Abraham. So translating it "brother" in Gen 14:14 is using the English term in the broader, more figurative sense.
 
 
2 hours later…
3:47 PM
@ScottS Thanks.
 

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